Pratiyogita Darpan: Free Material: RBI Grade 'B' Officer Examination Solved Paper 2017

RBI Grade 'B' Officer Examination Solved Paper 2017
PART – I

General Awareness

1. Who has won the 2016 Fide Women’s Grand Prix trophy?

(A) Geetha Narayanan Gopal

(B) Harika Dronavalli

(D) Koneru Humpy

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Harika Dronavalli, an Indian chess grandmaster, has won the 2016 Fide Women’s Grand Prix trophy by defeating Russia’s Olga Girya in the final in Chendu, China .

2. Which state government of India has recently signed MoU with the Netherlands to set up a skill development centre for farmers?

(A) Punjab

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Rajasthan

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Uttar Pradesh government has signed a MoU with the Netherlands to set up a skill development centre to help farmers. As per the MoU, Netherlands will help Uttar Pradesh in solid waste management, urban development and infrastructure, water management, water supply, cleanliness of water resources, sewage treatment, transport management and revival of water bodies. It would also help in land reclamation of 1,500 acres in the Ganga basin in Kanpur and development of cultural heritage. The MoU will be effective for 3 years.

3. The book “Furiously Happy: A Funny book about Horrible Things” has been authored by whom?

(A) Allie Brosh

(B) Alexandra Brosh

(D) Roy Sorensen

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The book “Furiously Happy: A Funny book about Horrible Things” has been authored by Jenny Lawson. The book explores her lifelong battle with mental illness. This is a book about accepting everything that makes us who we are, beautiful and imperfect, and then using it to find joy in fantastic and outrageous ways. The author is an award-winning humor writer known for her great openness in sharing her struggle with depression and mental illness.

4. The 2016 Homeless World Cup has started in which of the following cities?

(A) Tokyo

(B) Kochi

(D) Glasgow

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The 14th edition of Homeless World Cup 2016 has started in Glasgow, Scotland from July 10 and will continue till July 16. It is an annual football tournament focusing on advocating a global awareness about homelessness. Recently, Slum Soccer has partnered with Tata Trusts and Football Players Association of India (FPAI) for team India’s participation in the world cup. The Slum Soccer is an organization that uses football as a tool for the social upliftment of downtrodden and at-risk youth.

5. “Operation Megh Prahar”, the battle exercise has been conducted by which Indian military force?

(A) Indian Army

(B) Indian Air Force

(D) Indian Coastal Guard

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The battle exercise “Operation Megh Prahar” has been conducted by Indian Army on the banks of the Yamuna River on July 14, 2016 to test the effectiveness of the ultra modern Tank T-90 and BMP-2 in fighting across opposed river obstacle in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh. This exercise also showcased the importance of incorporating the 3rd dimension in bridging the gap of an obstacle and helping in capture of depth obstacle by a mechanized formation. .

6. What is the 2016 theme of the World Youth Skills Day (WYSD)?

(A) Youth: To motivate for skill development

(B) Youth skills for work and life

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The World Youth Skills Day (WYSD) is observed every year on July 15 to create awareness about the importance of investing in youth skills development. The 2016 theme is “Skills Development to Improve Youth Employment”.

7. Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)? (A) Sarvendra Vikram Bahadur Singh

(B) Rakesh Kumar Chaturvedi

(D) Girish Chandra Murmu

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Rakesh Kumar Chaturvedi, a 1987 batch IAS officer of Madhya Pradesh cadre, has been appointed as the new Chairman of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) for a period of 5 years. The post was lying vacant since December 2014.

8. The 2016 Tuluni festival has been held in which state of India?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Nagaland

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The Tuluni festival is celebrated every year on July 8 by Sumi Naga tribe of Nagaland to mark the end of dry season and the beginning of new fruits. The premier festival is marked by prayers and offerings to Litsaba, the deity of fruitfulness who gives life and protection to the crops. The Tuluni festival symbolizes fraternity, solidarity, sharing and oneness not only among the Sumi community but Nagas as a whole.

9. The first edition of India Skills Competition has started in which city of India?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Chennai

(D) Bangalore

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The first edition of India Skills Competition has recently launched by President Pranab Mukherjee in New Delhi on July 15, 2016 and will be continued till July 17, 2016. Around 4,820 candidates have registered to compete at the competition. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) have organized “India Skills” to select the best talent in 24 skills/trades viz. hair stylist, welding, car painting, auto body repair, graphic designing, robotics, etc The shortlisted candidates from these events will qualify for the final selection for World Skills International Competition at Abu Dhabi (Dubai ) in 2017. The India Skills is a platform that will bring youth, industries, and educators together and provide youth an opportunity to compete, experience, and learn how to become the best in the skill of their choice.

10. Which Indian corporate has become the first-ever to issue Masala Bond on London Stock Exchange (LSE)?

(A) HDFC

(B) ICICI

(D) Yes Bank

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC) has become the first Indian company to issue rupee-denominated bonds “masala bonds” on London Stock Exchange (LSE). The bond will help HDFC to diversify its borrowing profile and access global investors.The Masala bond refers to a bond through which Indian entities can raise money from foreign markets in rupee, and not in foreign currency. By issuing bonds in rupees, an Indian entity is protected against the risk of currency fluctuation, typically associated with borrowing in foreign currency. With this, masala bonds will help in internationalization of the rupee and will expand the Indian bond markets. Though, the bonds are traded on the LSE, not in India.

11. Who has won the 2016 Women’s Singles Wimbledon Championship?

(A) Simona Halep

(B) Serena Williams

(D) Garbine Muguruza

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Serena Williams has won the 2016 Women’s Singles Wimbledon Championship by defeating Angelique Kerber in the final by 7–5, 6–3 in London, United Kingdom. With this win, Williams equaled Steffi Graf’s Open Era record of 22 major singles titles.

12. Who has won the 2016 Computer History Museum Book Prize?

(A) Manoj Bhudholia

(B) Yogesh Sen

(D) Mayank Jain

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Dinesh Sharma, the Indian columnist and author, has won the 2016 Computer History Museum Book Prize for his book “The Outsourcer: The Story of India’s IT Revolution”. The book is a panoramic history of development of software and information technology in India spanning almost half a century. The prize of $1,000 is awarded by the Special Interest Group for Computers, Information and Society (SIGCIS ) for the History of Technology.

13. DRDO has signed pact with which IITs for Centre for Propulsion Technology (CoPT)?

(A) IIT Bombay and IIT Madras

(B) IIT Indore and IIT Mandi

(D) IIT Kharagpur and IIT Madras

(E) None of these Answer :

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) have recently signed an agreement with IIT-Bombay and Madras to establish a bi-nodal Centre of Propulsion Technology (CoPT) at the two institutions. The purpose of the agreement is to achieve synergy between DRDO and IITs for channelizing research efforts towards developing products and aerospace technologies. The CoPT will facilitate and undertake multidisciplinary directed research in the focused areas of futuristic aero engines, hypersonic propulsion for long duration flights, solid propellant combustion modelling and morphing aircraft technologies. It will also undertake advanced collaborative research in the areas of critical defence technologies.

14. Who has won the 2016 Men’s Singles Wimbledon Championship?

(A) Rafael Nadal

(B) Milos Raonic

(D) Andy Murray

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Andy Murray from Great Britain has won the 2016 Men’s Singles Wimbledon Championship by defeating Milos Raonic in the final by 6-4, 7-6,7-6 at centre court in London, United Kingdom. With this, he clinched a 2nd Wimbledon title and third Grand Slam crown of his career.

15. The 2016 Mountain Echoes literary festival will be held in which country?

(A) Nepal

(B) Bhutan

(D) Myanmar

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The 7th edition of Mountain Echoes literary festival 2016 will be held in Thimpu, Bhutan on August 26 to 28, 2016. It is an initiative of India-Bhutan Foundation in association with Siyahi, a literary organization. The festival aims to provide a platform for the greatest literary minds to engage in a cultural dialogue. In 2016, the festival will focus on climate change, women’s voices and travel writing. Beside this, the festival will also announced the first edition of ‘Bonfire Tales’: A cultural journey that travels via motorcycle to the Phobjikha valley in the impressive Black Mountains of Bhutan and then onto the warm climes of Punakha .

16. What is the theme of 2016 United Nations World Population Day?

(A) Investing in teenage girls

(B) Equality empowers

(D) Vulnerable populations in emergencies

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The United Nations World Population Day is observed every year on July 11 to focus attention on the urgency and importance of population issue. The 2016 theme is “Investing in Teenage Girls” that calls for action to address the vast challenges faced by teenage girls across the world. As per the theme, if a teenage girl has the power, the means and the information to make her own decisions in life, she is more likely to overcome obstacles that stand between her and a healthy, productive future. This will benefit her, her family and her community.

17. The Gangajal delivery scheme has been started from which city of India?

(A) Patna

(B) Ranchi

(D) Bhubaneswar

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The Gangajal delivery scheme has been launched at General Post Master office in Patna, Bihar. The initiative to deliver ‘Gangajal’, a holy water from the river Ganga, from Indian Postal Services has been launched by Union Minister of Law and Justice Ravi Shankar Prasad and Minister of State for Communications Manoj Sinha. Under the scheme, the pious Gangajal, brought from Gangotri and Rishikesh, would be delivered at the doorsteps of people at nominal prices.

18. Who has won the 2016 Formulae One British Grand Prix championship?

(A) Kimi Raikkonen

(B) Lewis Hamilton

(D) Nico Rosberg

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Mercedes driver Lewis Hamilton from England has won the 2016 Formulae One British Grand Prix championship in Silverstone, United Kingdom. It is his 4th title of the 2016 season after Monaco Grand Prix, Canadian Grand Prix, and Austrian Grand Prix. .

19. The book “One Part Woman” has been authored by whom?

(A) Nanda Devi

(B) Perumal Murugan

(D) Gautam Bhatia

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The book “Mathorubhagan ( or One Part Woman )” has been authored by tamil writer Perumal Murugan. The novel’s focus is on recording the travails of a childless couple subjected to community ridicule. Recently, the novel is in news because the Madras High Court has invalidated the settlement, dismissed the criminal complaints and dismissed the petition seeking a ban on the book. The issue was that some Hindu groups took offence to this book and alleged that the author portrayed the Kailasanathar temple in Tiruchengode and its women devotees in bad light. They demanded that the book should be ban.

20. Which national football team has won the 2016 UEFA European football championship?

(A) France

(B) Portugal

(D) Spain

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Portugal has won the 15th edition of UEFA European football championship 2016 (or Euro Cup 2016) by defeating host France by 1-0 at Saint-Denis in Paris. It is Portugal’s first UEFA Euro Cup title. With this, Portugal has earned the right to compete at the 2017 FIFA Confederations Cup in Russia.

21. How much interest subsidy for farmers has been approved by Government of India (GoI) for Fiscal Year 2016-17?

(A) 7.5 %

(B) 5%

(D) 8%

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The Government of India (GoI) will provide interest subvention of 5 % for all farmers for short term crop loans up to Rs 3 lakh for Fiscal Year 2016-17, provided they repay in time, or else a higher rate of 7% will be charged. Thus, farmers will have to effectively pay only 4% as interest. Beside this, an interest subsidy of 2 % has also been cleared for loans upto 6 months for small and marginal farmers who would have to borrow at 9 % for the post harvest storage of their produce. For farmers affected by Natural Calamities, the interest subvention of 2 % will be provided to Banks for the first year on the restructured amount. The Interest subvention scheme is for public and private sector banks, cooperative banks, regional rural banks and NABARD for providing short term crop loan to farmers. Earlier, the subvention scheme was implemented by the Finance Ministry. It was transferred to the Agriculture Ministry in 2016.

22. Who is the 2016 winner of The Caine Prize for African writing?

(A) Lidudumalingani

(B) Namwali Serpell

(D) Lesley Nneka Arimah

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Lidudumalingani, the South African writer, filmmaker and photographer, has won the 17th edition of prestigious Caine Prize 2016 for his short story “Memories We Lost”. The winning story explores mental health through the relationship of two sisters in a South African village, one of whom is schizophrenic and the other her protector. The sister’s situation deteriorates as her care is entrusted to Nkunzi, a local man who employs traditional techniques to rid people of their demons. The Caine Prize is an annual literature prize awarded to an African writer of a short story published in the English language to encourage and highlight the richness and diversity of African writing by bringing it to a wider audience internationally. .

23. The book “When Breath Becomes Air” has been authored by whom?

(A) Ruskin Bond

(B) Raj Kotwal

(D) Zalmay Khalilzad

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The book “When Breath Becomes Air” has been authored by Paul Kalanithi. The book is an unforgettable, life-affirming reflection on the challenge of facing death and on the relationship between doctor and patient, from a brilliant writer who became both.

24. The Indravati National Park (INP) is located at which state?

(A) Assam

(B) Chhattisgarh

(D) Kerala

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The Indravati National Park (INP) is located in Bijapur district, Chhattisgarh. It is also home to gaur (Indian bison), nilgai, blackbuck, chausingha (four-horned antelope), sambar, Indian muntjac, Indian spotted chevrotain, wild boar, tigers, leopards, sloth bears, dholes (wild dog), striped hyenas, etc .

25. Who is the newly appointed Union Minister of Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD)? (A) Jayant Sinha

(B) Prakash Javadekar

(D) Arjun Ram Meghwal

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Prakash Javadekar is the newly appointed Union Minister of Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD). He succeeded Smriti Irani. Previously, Javadekar was the Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Environment, Forests and Climate Change.

26. The world’s largest Charkha has been set up in which city of India?

(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(D) Ahmedabad

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The world’s largest Charkha has been set up by the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) Minister Kalraj Mishra at Terminal 3 of the Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA) in New Delhi.The 4-tones Charkha made from high-quality Burma teak wood is estimated to last for over 50 years. It is 9 feet wide, 17 feet tall and 30 feet long. The Charkha is a symbol of India’s glorious heritage and an inspiring reminder of freedom struggle led by Mahatma Gandhi. It represents Swadeshi, self-sufficiency and interdependence because the wheel is at the center of a network of cotton growers, weavers, distributors and users.

27. Which Indian state police has recently launched 24-hour helpline to report incidents of cow smuggling?

(A) Punjab

(B) Haryana

(D) Chhatisgarh

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The Haryana Police has recently launched a 24-hour helpline “8284030455” for people to report incidents of the smuggling or slaughter of cows in the state, where cattle slaughter and beef sale are already banned. The information will then be relayed to police officials posted in the area who will then send a special team set up for the purpose. The initiative has been set up after a video surfaced on social media where two men were being forced to eat a cow dung concoction by members of ‘Gau Rakshak Dal’volunteers, after they were allegedly caught with beef in their possession.

28. Which of the following cities is hosting the 2016 Woodpecker Environment and Wildlife Film Festival?

(A) Shimla

(B) Guwahati

(D) Bhubaneswar

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The 4th edition of Woodpecker Environment and Wildlife Film Festival 2016 will begin at historic Gaiety Theatre in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh from July 7 and will continue till July 9, 2016. In the festival, 45 films, including several national award winning movies and five films from Himachal Pradesh will be screened, which is aimed at highlighting the environmental concerns. The focus of the festival will be critical environment and wildlife conservation issues like climate change, forest conservation, biodiversity and man-animal conflict and success stories will also be showcased in it. The festival is being organized by WWF India in collaboration with CMSR foundation, Delhi with the support of Himachal Pradesh’s Department of Language, Art and culture and Department of Forest.

29. Which state has become the first Indian state to introduce minimum wages for part time workers?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Odisha

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Rajasthan has become the first Indian state to introduce minimum wages for part time. As per the notification, it is now mandatory to pay 50 % of the prescribed a day minimum wage to a person who works for less than 4 hours in a day. With this notification, now part time workers come under the Minimum Wages Act 1948.

30. Who has been appointed as the president of the first-ever association for Indian Olympians “Olympians Association of India (OAI)”?

(A) Viren Rasquinha

(B) Shiva Keshavan

(D) Aneesh Madani

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The 5-time Olympian Shiva Keshavan has been appointed as the first President of the Olympians Association of India (OAI). The OAI is the India’s first and only non-profit organization founded by Olympians viz. Shiva Keshavan(luge), Viren Rasquinha (hockey), Malav Shroff (sailing), Mary Kom (boxing), etc. for Olympians in Indi(A) It is directly affiliated to the World Association (WOA) under the International Olympic Committee. It has been formed to voice the concerns of athletes. The OAI’s official Twitter account, @IndianOlympians, will serve as the platform for real-time updates of the Indian contingent at the Rio Olympics, which is scheduled to be held at August 2016. All Indian Olympians will be registered members and will contribute for the cause and at the same time mutually benefit from projects initiated by the OAI. It will be a platform for Olympians to take care of each other’s needs beyond their sporting careers.

31. Sameer Mon is associated with which sports?

(A) Boxing

(B) Wrestling

(D) Long Jump

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Sameer Mon, the famous sprinter from Manipur, has recently won gold in 100 metre dash in 10.60 seconds at the 56th National Inter-state Senior Athletics Championships in Hyderabad. With this, he became the fastest male athlete in Indi(A) .

32. Which online grievance redressal portal has been launched by Union Railway ministry for railway employees?

(A) Aakalan

(B) Sahyog

(D) Sahayata

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Union Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu has recently launched NIVARAN portal, an online system for redressal of service related grievance of serving and former railway employees. This online system facilitates the employees to lodge their grievances and also monitor the progress. The system would also provide facility for lodging appeal to the higher authority in case the decision is not found satisfactory. The highest controlling authorities shall also be able to monitor the progress of grievance redressal by field offices.

33. “Exercise RIMPAC 2016” the multilateral naval exercise has started in which country?

(A) United States

(B) United Kingdom

(D) France

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The 25th edition of Exercise Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) 2016 has started in Pacific Ocean at Hawaii, United States from June 30, 2016 and will continue till August 4, 2016. In it, 27 countries viz. India, the Philippines, Australia, France, Japan, Malaysia, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Tonga, the United Kingdom, etc, are participating. The RIMPAC is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise, which provides a platform for multilateral operational interactions aimed at increased interoperability and development of common understanding of procedures for maritime security operations.

34. Who has been sworn-in as the new President of Philippines?

(A) Jejomar Binay

(B) Benigno Aquino

(D) Leni Robredo

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Rodrigo Duterte, Maverick anti-crime candidate, has been sworn-in as the 16th President of the Philippines, after a landslide election victory in May 2016. He succeeded Benigno S. Aquino III and will have a tenure of 6 years.

35. How much amount has been approved by World Bank (WB) for technical education quality improvement project in India?

(A) $121.50 million

(B) $201.50 million

(D) $355.50 million

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The World Bank Board has approved the $ 201.50 million for Technical Education Quality Improvement Project (TEQIP III) in Indi(A) The purpose of the project is to increase quality and equity in participating engineering education institutes and to improve the efficiency of the engineering education system in focus states.The maturity period for the project is 25 years with an additional 5 years grace period.

36. What is the India’s rank in the World Bank’s 2016 Logistics Performance Index (LPI)?

(A) 55th

(B) 78th

(D) 19th

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : India has been ranked 35th out of 160 countries in the World Bank’s 2016 Logistics Performance Index (LPI). India’s logistics performance at its key international gateways has improved in the last two years from 54 in 2014 to 35 in 2016, which will not only boost programmes, such as Make in India, but also help in increasing trade. The list is topped by Germany, followed by Luxembourg and Sweden. Logistics organises the movement of goods through a network of activities and services operating at global, regional, and local scale. The LPI is the World Bank’s biennial measure of international supply chain efficiency.

37. The National Doctors’ Day is celebrated on which date in India?

(A) June 30

(B) July 5

(D) July 1

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The National Doctors’ Day is celebrated every year on July 1 in India to honour the legendary physician and the 2nd Chief Minister of West Bengal, Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy. This is a vital day for doctors as it provides them with an opportunity to reflect on their career and remind them about practicing the art and science of Medicine and Surgery in an ethical manner.

38. The book “The mind of the terrorist: the Psychology of terrorism from the IRA to al-Qaeda” has been authored by whom?

(A) Amitav Ghosh

(B) Ashwin Sanghi

(D) Jerrold M. Post

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The book “The mind of the terrorist: the Psychology of terrorism from the IRA to al-Qaeda” has been authored by Dr. Jerrold M. Post. The book is an exceptionally well-written book that makes a significant contribution to the field of counter-terrorism. It is a comprehensive and informative account of the psychology of terrorists and how their history has shaped their motivations.

39. Ramchandra Chintaman Dhere, who passed away recently, was a famous writer of which language?

(A) Marathi

(B) Urdu

(D) Telugu

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Ramchandra Chintaman Dhere (86), the famous Marathi writer, has recently passed away in Pune, Maharashtra. He was known for his exhaustive research in folk literature and bhakti tradition of Maharashtra. His works include Vividh, Gangajali, Dakshinecha Lokdev Khandoba, History of Nath Sampraday, Sri Venkateshwara, etc.

40. The Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR) is located in which state of India?

(A) Assam

(B) Kerala

(D) Chhattisgarh

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR) is located at Jannaram mandal of Adilabad district in Telangana. The reserve covers a core area of 892.23 sq km and a buffer zone of 1,123.21 sq km. It is home to many mammal species such as tiger, leopard, gaur, cheetal, sambar, nilgai, barking deer, chowsingha, sloth bear, etc.

41. Which Indian personality has been conferred with the honorary professorship by the Nanjing Audit University (NAU),China?

(A) Urjit Patel

(B) Raghuram Rajan

(D) Duvvuri Subbarao

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Shashi Kant Sharma, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), has been conferred with the honorary professorship by the Nanjing Audit University (NAU), Chin(A) It is the only university which is recognized by the Institute of Internal Auditors.

42. The 2017 Global Entrepreneurship Summit (GES) will be hosted by which country?

(A) India

(B) United States

(D) Kenya

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The 2017 Global Entrepreneurship Summit (GES) will be hosted by Indi(A) The summit will promote economic growth, inclusion and opportunities among entrepreneurs from across the world, with a special focus on emerging nations from Africa and Asi(A) The GES is a personal initiative of US President Barack Obama to bring entrepreneurs from across the globe on one platform.

43. Which of the following countries has become the newest member of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)?

(A) Canada

(B) India

(D) Poland

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : India has become the 35th member of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) in June 2016. The MTCR membership will enable India to buy high-end missile technology and also enhance its joint ventures with Russi(A) The purpose of the MTCR is to restrict the proliferation of missiles, complete rocket systems, unmanned air vehicles and related technology for those systems capable of carrying a 500 kg payload for at least 300 kms, as well as systems intended for the delivery of Weapons ofMass Destruction (WMD).

44. Which north-eastern state of India has recently launched “Sakhi-One Stop Centre” to help women in distress?

(A) Assam

(B) Manipur

(D) Tripura

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Governor of Nagaland P B Acharya has recently launched women helpline “181” and “Sakhi-One Stop Centre”, an institute that supports women affected by violence, at the District Hospital Dimapur in Nagaland. The helpline and centre are aimed to provide integrated assistance, medical, legal and psychological counselling to women affected by violence. The ‘Sakhi-One Stop Centre’is a centrally sponsored scheme by the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) to be funded through Nirbhaya Fund.

45. Atanu Das, who recently qualified for 2016 Rio Olympics, is associated with which sports?

(A) Wushu

(B) Long jump

(D) Archery

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : In Archery, Atanu Das has recently qualified for 2016 Rio Olympics in the men’s individual recurve event. It is officially confirmed by the Archery Association of India (AAI) after a selection trial at Bengaluru. He will be the only Indian representative in the men’s category at the Rio Games. It will be Das’s first Olympics. The women’s recurve team of Deepika Kumari, L Bombayla Devi and Laxmirani Manjhi has already qualified for the individual as well as team event in Rio. Though, Indian men’s team failed to qualify in the final Olympic qualification.

46. The book “R.(D)Burmania –Panchamemoirs” has been authored by whom?

(A) Kavita Krishnamurthy

(B) Chaitanya Padukone

(D) Talat Aziz

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The book “R.(D)Burmania –Panchamemoirs” has been authored by Chaitanya Padukone, the noted journalist. The book depicts the journey of the legendary music director R D Burman. It is an attempt to string together amazing, amusing and agonizing yet fascinating anecdotes, incidents and idiosyncrasies while unravelling the mystique behind Bollywood’s most adored composer.

47. The Government of India (GoI) has extended the ban on the import of milk and milk products of China till which year?

(A) June 2017

(B) March 2017

(D) January 2017

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The Government of India (GoI) has extended the ban on import of milk and its products from China till June 2017. The prohibition on import of milk and milk products includes chocolates and chocolate products and candies/ confectionery/ food preparations with milk or milk solids as an ingredient. Though, India does not import milk products from China, but has imposed the ban as a preventive measure. Among states, Uttar Pradesh is the leading milk producer, followed by Rajasthan and Gujarat.

48. The 2016 Copa America Football tournament has been won by which of the following countries?

(A) Argentina

(B) Colombia

(D) Peru

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Chile national football team has won the 2016 Copa America Football tournament by defeating Argentina in a penalty shootout at New Jersey, United States. This was the 2nd Copa America title won by Chile after winning it for the first title in 2015 after defeating Argentina. With this, Chile has become the 4th nation to win at least two consecutive Copa America titles, after Uruguay, Argentina and Brazil.

49. Which union ministry has recently signed pact with ISRO for geo-tagging assets in each gram panchayat?

(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

(B) Ministry of AYUSH

(D) Ministry of Rural Development

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The Union Rural Development Ministry and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have recently signed a pact for geo-tagging the assets created under the rural job guarantee scheme “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)” in each gram panchayat. As per the pact, a Gram Rozgar Sahayak or junior engineer will take a photo of an asset created by beneficiaries of the scheme and through a mobile app created by ISRO upload the photo on the Bhuvan web portal run by ISRO’s National Remote Sensing Centre. The geo-tagging of assets will help to check and curb leakages and also help in using of modern space technology for rural development in planning and execution of projects in a transparent manner.

50. Kavalam Narayana Panicker, who passed away recently, was a famous personality of which field?

(A) Theatre

(B) Sports

(D) Photography

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Kavalam Narayana Panicker (88), the famous Malayalam theatre personality, has recently passed away in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. He was popularly known as Kavalam, was a well-established poet, lyricist and theatre director. His notable works include Madhyamavyayogam (1979), Kalidasa’s Vikramorvasiyam (1981), Shakuntalam (1982), Karnabharam (1984), Bhasa’s Uru Bhangam (1988), Swapnavasavadattam and Dootavakyam (1996).

51. What is the theme of the United Nations’ (UN) World Refugee Day 2016?

(A) We stand together with refugees

(B) Migrants and Refugees: Towards a Better World

(D) With courage let us all combine

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The United Nations’ (UN) World Refugee Day is observed every year on June 20 to raise awareness of the situation of refugees throughout the world.The 2016 theme is “We stand together with refugees”.

52. Who has won the 2016 Formula One European Grand Prix?

(A) Sergio Perez

(B) Sebastian Vettel

(D) Nico Rosberg

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Nico Rosberg, a German Formula One driver for Mercedes Formula 1 team, has won the 2016 Formula 1 European Grand Prix at the Baku City Circuit in Baku, Azerbaijan.

53. Atanu Das is associated with which sports?

(A) Badminton

(B) Archery

(D) Table Tennis

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The Indian mixed recurve team of Deepika Kumari and Atanu Das has won the silver medal at the 2016 Archery World Cup at Konyaalti Beach Park in Antalya, Turkey.

54. The Government of India (GoI) has recently approved 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in which of the folowing sectors?

(A) Civil aviation

(B) Defence

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The Government of India (GoI) has recently approved 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in defence through the approval route, 100% FDI in food product e-commerce, 100% FDI in greenfield pharma via the automatic route, 100% in brownfield pharma – of which 74% will be through automatic route, 100% FDI in scheduled airlines and up to 49% FDI in airlines through automatic route. Beside this, up to 100% FDI through auomatic route has also been permitted for setting up of uplinking HUBs/Teleports, Mobile TV, DTH, and cable networks operating at national, state and district levels, as well as local cable networks.

55. Which state team has won the first edition of India’s Bad Bull Softball League?

(A) Punjab

(B) Telangana

(D) Maharashtra

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Maharashtra have won the first edition of India’s Bad Bull Softball League by defeating Punjab 2-1 at Saket Sports Complex. The league was recognised by the Delhi Softball Association (DSA). The Softball league was an effort to encourage amateur baseball and softball at entry level among the common masses.

56. What is the theme of the 2nd edition the International Day of Yoga (IDY) 2016?

(A) Live in Peace

(B) Peace: Soul and Mind

(D) Inspire every one for healthy environment

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The International Day of Yoga (IDY) is observed on June 21 every year to spread awareness about yog(A) Yoga is an invaluable gift of India’s ancient tradition. This tradition is 5000 years old. It embodies unity of mind and body, thought and action, restraint and fulfillment, harmony between man and nature and a holistic approach to health and well-being. The 2nd edition of IDY is celebrated in India and across the worl(D) In it, 139 countries participated in the celebrations at UN on June 21, 2016. The 2016 theme is “Connect the Youth”.

57. Which Non-Government organization (NGO) has been ranked No. 1 in the NGO Advisor’s 2016 Top 500 NGOs World rankings?

(A) Save the Children

(B) BRAC

(D) Oxfam

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The Bangladesh-based Non-Government organization (NGO) “BRAC” has been ranked No. 1 in the list of Geneva-based NGO Advisor’s 2016 Top 500 NGOs World rankings. The BRAC has acquired top position because of its holistic approach to fight against poverty and treating it as a system of interrelated barriers that must be addressed concurrently.The ranking has also highlighted the organization’s history of designing and implementing solutions at scale. The other notable NGOs in the top 500 include Doctors Without Borders (2), Oxfam (5), Save the Children (9) and Grameen Bank (12).

58. Which Parliamentary committee has been constituted to review Model Code of Conduct (MCC) for election polls?

(A) Anand Sinha committee

(B) Nachiket Mor committee

(D) Ashok Dalwai committee

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Parliamentary committee under the chairmanship of E.M. Sudarsana Natchiappan has been constituted to review Model code of conduct (MCC) for election polls and will also suggest ways to check distribution of cash and freebies ahead of the polls. The MCC are the guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI)for conduct of political parties and candidates during elections mainly with respect to speeches, polling day, polling booths, election manifestos, processions and general conduct.

59. Which committee has been constituted by Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) to study the scope of title insurance in the Indian market?

(A) Nachiket Mor committee

(B) Ashok Dalwai committee

(D) NR Nagendra committee

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has set up a Suresh Mathur committee to study the scope of title insurance in the Indian market. The committee will submit its report within two months. The title insurance is a cover that protects the owner of a property from disputes or frauds of land titles.

60. The book “Green Transport” has been authored by whom?

(A) Ranjit Saranwali

(B) Sanjeev Chhetri

(D) Vikrama Hatwara

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The book “Green Transport: : Exploring Eco-Friendly Travel for a Better Tomorrow” has been authored by Rani Iyer. The author loves to write for children on a variety of topics viz. nature, ecology, science, culture and history. The “Green transport” is one of the books of her i.e. inclined towards the environment.

61. What is the theme of 2016 World Blood Donor Day (WBDD)?

(A) Blood connects us all

(B) More blood, more life (C) Every blood donor is a hero

(D) Thank you for saving my life

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The World Blood Donor Day (WBDD) is observed every year on June 14 to raise awareness of the need for safe blood and blood products and to thank blood donors for their voluntary, life- saving gifts of blood. The 2016 theme is “Blood connects us all”, which aims to motivate more people to donate blood globally.

62. The United Nations’ World Elder Abuse Awareness Day (WEAAD) is observed on which date?

(A) June 16

(B) June 11

(D) June 13

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The United Nations’ World Elder Abuse Awareness Day (WEAAD) is observed every year on June 15 to focus global attention on the problem of physical, emotional, and financial abuse of elders and to create awareness on the need of taking care of elders.

63. Who of the following will represent India at the St Petersburg International Economic Forum (SPIEF)?

(A) Arun Jaitley

(B) Dharmendra Pradhan

(D) Narendra Modi

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Dharmendra Pradhan, the Minister of State (I/C) for Petroleum and Natural Gas, will represent India at the St Petersburg International Economic Forum (SPIEF) in St Petersburg, Russia, which is scheduled from June 16-17, 2016. The SPIEF is an annual international conference dedicated to economic and business issues. It attracts over thousands of participants, including political and business leaders, leading scientists, public figures, and members of the media from all over the world. The forum mainly discusses the most pressing issues facing Russia and the world.

64. Which committee has been constituted to shortlist candidates for RBI Governorship?

(A) Anand Kumar committee

(B) HR Khan committee

(D) P K Sinha committee

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The Union Government has constituted a selection committee headed by cabinet secretary P.K. Sinha for shortlisting candidates for RBI governorship, after Raghuram Rajan’s term comes to an end in September 2016.

65. Who has been elected as the new President of the 71st session of United Nations General Assembly (UNGA 71)?

(A) Josaia Voreqe Bainimarama

(B) Peter Thomson

(D) Andreas Mavroyiannis

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Thomson Peter Thomson, Fiji’s ambassador to the United Nations, has been elected as the new President of the 71st session of United Nations General Assembly (UNGA 71). He will replace current General Assembly President Mogens Lykketoft and will begin his tenure in September 2016 at the commencement of the UNGA 71. With this, Thomson will become the first representative of the Small Islands and Developing States (SIDS) group to hold the position. Thomson will oversee the process of searching for a new U.N. secretary-general to replace Ban Ki-moon of South Korea, who will finish his second five-year term in the post at the end of 2016.

66. The report titled “The Rise of Environmental Crime” has been released by which environmental organization?

(A) Partnerships in Environmental Management for the Seas of East Asia (PEMSEA)

(B) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

(D) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The report titled “The Rise of Environmental Crime” has been released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and INTERPOL. As per the report, environmental crimes grew up by 26 % larger than previous estimates. The environmental crime is the world’s 4th largest criminal enterprise after drug smuggling, counterfeiting and human trafficking. The environmental crime includes the illegal trade in wildlife, corporate crime in the forestry sector, the illegal exploitation and sale of gold and other minerals, illegal fisheries, the trafficking of hazardous waste and carbon credit fraud. The report has recommended strong action, legislation and sanctions at national and international levels to stop crime.

67. Who among the following has won the 2016 Pen Pinter Prize?

(A) Maureen Freely

(B) Margaret Atwood

(D) Antonia Fraser

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Margaret Atwood, Canadian poet and environmental campaigner, has been awarded the prestigious 2016 Pen Pinter Prize for her work championing environmental causes. She will receive award at a public British Library event on October 13, 2016. The Prize is awarded annually to British, Irish or Commonwealth writer to define the real truth of our lives and our societies.

68. Which of the following is the official slogan for the 2016 Rio Olympic and Paralympic Games?

(A) Welcome home

(B) A New World

(D) Inspire a generation

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The official slogan for the 2016 Rio Olympic and Paralympic Games is “A New World”. For Rio 2016, the core values of the slogan and the manifesto are unity, respect for diversity and the will for change. The motto of Rio 2016 is to promote the concepts of transformation through sport and changing the world for the better.

69. Which state government has recently launched the Child Labour Tracking System (CLTS)?

(A) Bihar

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The Bihar government has recently launched the Child Labour Tracking System (CLTS) in Patna to keep a track of rescued child labour for their proper rehabilitation. A committee headed by Chief Secretary for implementation of children’s demands will also be set up. Beside this, every rescued child will be given Rs. 25000 from Chief Minister’s Relief Fun(D) The money will directly go to children’s bank account. The money will be given to all those children who will be registered under the tracking system.

70. Where are the headquarters of International Seabed Authority (ISA)?

(A) Berlin

(B) Paris

(D) Kingston

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental body to organize, regulate and control all mineral-related activities in the international seabed area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, an area underlying most of the world’s oceans. It is in news recently because India will soon sign a 15 years contract with the ISA, which will give exclusive rights to India to mine for precious metals in the Indian Ocean seabed. The ISA, under the United Nations Convention on Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), governs non-living resources of the seabed of international waters. Presently, the ISA has 167 members and the European Union, composed of all parties to the Law of the Sea Convention. The headquarters of ISA is located at Kingston, Jamaica.

71. Which of the following pollutants is responsible for highest number of premature mortalities in India?

(A) PM2.5

(B) PM2.10

(D) Nitrous oxide

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : PM2.5 and ground level Ozone are held responsible for the maximum number of premature mortalities in Indi(A) PM2.5 causes respiratory irritation or breathing difficulties or Asthma, and sometimes may prove fatal.

72. Who is the head of the newly created committee by NITI Aayog for land policy cell?

(A) T. Haque

(B) T. S. Thakur

(D) Anil R. Dave

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : T Haque was the chairman of Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices, and now has been appointed the head of the newly created land policy cell in the NITI Aayog. T Haque was among the prime mover behind the Model Land Leasing Act.

73. Exercise Anakonda 2016 (AN16), the joint military exercise has started in which country?

(A) Poland

(B) Vietnam

(D) France

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The 10-day long military training exercise, Anakonda 2016 (AN16) has started in Poland from June 7, 2016. It is the most important and the largest training exercise of the Polish Armed Forces in 2016. The purpose of Anakonda–16 is to check the abilities of NATO to defend the territory of the eastern flank of North Atlantic Alliance. It involves 31,000 soldiers from 19 NATO countries and five partner countries, including approximately 12,000 Polish troops.

74. Which country has recently joined Europe-led plan to tackle tax evasion and corruption?

(A) Pakistan

(B) China

(D) Switzerland

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The Government of India (GoI) has recently joined a group of nearly 40 nations that have signed a Europe-led clampdown on tax evasion and corruption. These 40 countries have committed to the initiative to automatically exchange information on beneficial ownership. Besides India, some of the other countries outside Europe on the list include Afghanistan, Nigeria, Mexico and the UAE. The initiative aims to develop a global standard for the automatic exchange of beneficial ownership data between law enforcement agencies and tax authorities of partner countries. Most European countries except Switzerland are part of this automatic exchange mechanism.

75. Who among the following has become the first Indian to win the Mumbai Mayor’s International Open Chess Tournament 2016?

(A) Himal Gusain

(B) Diptayan Ghosh

(D) NR Visakh

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : NR Visakh, the Tamil Nadu teenager and International Master, has created history by becoming the first Indian to won the 9th edition of Mumbai Mayor’s International Open Chess Tournament 2016.

76. Which country is hosting the 2016 UEFA European football championship?

(A) Germany

(B) France

(D) Netherland

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : France is the host nation of the 15th edition of UEFA European football championship 2016 (Euro 2016). It is scheduled from 10 June to 10 July 2016. For the first time, the European Championship final tournament will be contested by 24 teams. Under this new format, the finalists will contest a group stage consisting of six groups of four teams, followed by a knockout stage including three rounds and the final. The winning team of Euro 2016 earns the right to compete at the 2017 FIFA Confederations Cup hosted by Russia.

77. The book “The Gene: An Intimate History” has been authored by whom?

(A) Randall Munroe

(B) Siddhartha Mukherjee

(D) Richard P. Feynman

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The book “The Gene: An Intimate History” has been authored by Siddhartha Mukherjee, who is the Pulitzer Prize-winning author of the book “The Emperor of All Maladies”. The book is a magnificent history of the gene and a response to the defining question of the future: What becomes of being human when we learn to read and write our own genetic information?. In other words, it is a magnificent synthesis of the science of life, and forces all to confront the essence of that science as well as the ethical and philosophical challenges to our conception of what constitutes being human.

78. Which pay review panel has been constituted for academic staff of Universities and Colleges?

(A) Satish Ghosh panel

(B) Ashok Dalwai panel

(D) Neeraj Kumar Gupta panel

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The University Grants Commission (UGC) has constituted a 5-member committee for pay revision of academic staff of Universities and Colleges. The Pay Revision Committee will be chaired by UGC member Prof V S Chauhan and it will submit its report in six months. The panel will examine the present structure of emoluments and service conditions of university and college teachers, librarians, physical education personnel and other academic staff. The panel will also suggest revision in the pay structure, taking into account the minimum qualifications, career advancement opportunities and benefits like superannuation benefits, medical and housing facilities. It will also make recommendations on the ways and means for attracting and retaining talented persons in the teaching profession among other things.

79. Who has been bestowed with the Regius Professorship in Manufacturing by Queen Elizabeth II?

(A) Mahesh Kumar Singla

(B) Kumar Bhattacharyya

(D) H R Nagendra

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Kumar Bhattacharyya Lord Kumar Bhattacharyya, the well-known Indian-origin professor, has been bestowed with the prestigious Regius Professorship in Manufacturing by Queen Elizabeth II for his outstanding contribution in manufacturing. He is the founder of the Warwick Manufacturing Group (WMG) at the University of Warwick. Throughout his career, he has advised the UK government on manufacturing, innovation, and technology, including former Prime Ministers Margaret Thatcher and Tony Blair.

80. The 2016 Malabar trilateral naval exercise has started between which of the following countries?

(A) India, Germany and France

(B) India, Iran and Turkey

(D) India, Afghanistan and Russia

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The 2016 Malabar trilateral naval exercise has started in Japan. The harbor phase of the exercise would be held at Sasebo from June 10 to June 13 and the sea phase in the Pacific Ocean from June 14 to June 17. The exercise is in line with India’s ‘Act East’ policy. In it, the naval ships of United States, India and Japan will participate to advance multi-national maritime relationships and mutual security issues. The exercise will support maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region and benefit the global maritime community.

PART – II

English Comprehension

Directions (Q. 81-85)—In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Letter of that word is the answer.

81. I. Boats take more time going against the ________ of the river.

II. She keeps herself abreast of ________ events.

(A) low

(B) latest

(D) all

(E) current

Answer : (E)

82. I. While trying to open the door, the ________ broke.

II. It is not difficult to ________ tricky situations.

(A) handle

(B) knob

(D) overcome

(E) win

Answer : (A)

83. I. This course teaches you not to ________ to temptations.

II. We hope to increase our ________ of rice this year.

(A) succumb

(B) produce

(D) share

(E) submit

Answer : (C)

84. I. When you play your radio at high ________ it disturbs others.

II. We have just received a latest ________ of this encyclopaedia.

(A) edition

(B) volume

(D) frequency

(E) pitch

Answer : (B)

85. I. It helps to rinse one’s mouth early morning with a________of salt and water.

II. You can always refer to this reference material to find the ________ to these problems.

(A) mixture

(B) answers

(D) fix

(E) solution

Answer : (E)

Directions (Q. 86-90)—In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

86. Solving the energy challange requires
(A)

behaviour change and new
(B)

technological approaches. All correct

Answer : (A)

Explanation : The correct spelling is—challenge

87. The first thing that catches your eye in
(A)

this building is the flour with laser
(B) (C)

lights. All correct

(D) (E)

Answer : (C)

Explanation : The correct spelling is — floor

88. The services sector has contributed
(A) (B)

significantly to the economic grow.

All correct

(E)

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Replace ‘grow’ by ‘growth’.

89. IT Companies have been allotted
(A)

landing in this area to develop and start
(B) (C)

their operations. All correct

(D) (E)

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Replace ‘landing’ by ‘land’.

90. Other then the regular incentives, the
(A) (B)

government is offering land sites at
(C)

concessional rates. All correct

(D) (E)

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Replace ‘then’ by ‘than’.

Directions (Q. 91-95)—Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

91. In terms with seating capacity, it is the third largest stadium in India.

(A) On terms with

(B) As far as

(D) In terms of

(E) No correction required

Answer : (D)

92. That actor can double for the star if needed be.

(A) if need

(B) if need be

(D) whenever needed be

(E) No correction required

Answer : (B)

93. The 1982 Asian Games brought about a major change in India.

(A) brought after

(B) bring after

(D) bring around

(E) No correction required

Answer : (E)

94. Tourism surely has suffered given the huge social unrest in the country.

(A) giving the huge

(B) because to

(D) taken the huge

(E) No correction required

Answer : (E)

95. Combining the ongoing crisis in Europe, the data does make a case for a pause in rate hike.

(A) Together

(B) Apart with

(D) Combination of

(E) No correction required

Answer : (C)

Directions (Q.96-105)—Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, notified by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, have the potential to turn a growing problem into a developmental opportunity. With almost half-a-year to go before the rules take effect, there is enough time to create the necessary infrastructure for collection, dismantling and recycling of electronic waste. The focus must be on sincere and efficient implementation. Only decisive action can reduce the pollution and health costs associated with India’s hazardous waste recycling industry. If India can achieve a transformation, it will be creating a whole new employment sector that provides good wages and working conditions for tens of thousands. The legacy response of the States to even the basic law on urban waste, the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules has been one of indifference; many cities continue to simply burn the garbage or dump it in lakes. With the emphasis now on segregation of waste at source and recovery of materials, it should be feasible to implement both sets of rules efficiently. A welcome feature of the new e-waste rules is the emphasis on extended producer responsibility. In other words, producers must take responsibility for the disposal of end-of-life products. For this provision to work, they must ensure that consumers who sell scrap get some form of financial incentive.

The e-waste rules, which derive from those pertaining to hazardous waste, are scheduled to come into force on May 1, 2012. Sound as they are, the task of scientifically disposing a few hundred thousand tonnes of trash electronics annually depends heavily on a system of oversight by State Pollutions Control Boards (PCBs). Unfortunately, most PCBs remain unaccountable and often lack the resources for active enforcement. It must be pointed out that, although agencies handling e-waste must obtain environmental clearances and be authorised and registered by the PCBs even under the Hazardous Wastes (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules 2008, there has been little practical impact. Over 95 per cent of electronic waste is collected and recycled by the informal sector. The way forward is for the PCBs to be made accountable for enforcement of the e-waste rules and the levy of penalties under environmental laws. Clearly, the first order priority is to create a system that will absorb the 80,000-strong workforce in the informal sector into the proposed scheme for scientific recycling. Facilities must be created to upgrade the skills of these workers through training and their occupational health must be ensured.

Recycling of e-waste is one of the biggest challenges today. In such a time, when globalisation and information technology are growing at a pace which could only be imagined few years back, e-waste and its hazards have become more prominent over a period of time and should be given immediate attention.

96. What, according to the passage, is important now for e-waste management ?

(A) Making rules

(B) Reviewing rules

(D) Notifying rules

(E) Amending rules

Answer : (C)

97. Which of the following can be one of the by-products of effective e-waste management ?

(A) India can guide other countries in doing so

(B) It will promote international understanding

(D) It will create a new employment sector

(E) It will further empower judiciary

Answer : (D)

98. Which of the following rules has not been indicated in the passage ?

(A) e-waste Rules 2011

(B) Pollution Check Rules

(D) Municipal Solid Wastes Rules

(E) All these have been indicated

Answer : (B)

99. “Both sets of rules” is being referred to which of the following ?

(A) Solid wastes and hazardous wastes

(B) e-waste and hazardous waste

(D) e-waste and e-production

(E) Solid waste and recycling waste

Answer : (E)

100. e-waste rules have been derived from those pertaining to–

(A) Hazardous waste

(B) PC waste

(D) Municipal solid waste

(E) National waste

Answer : (A)

101. Which of the following will help implement “both sets of rules”?

(A) Employment opportunities

(B) International collaboration

(D) Segregation of waste at source

(E) Health costs

Answer : (D)

102. e-waste Rules came / come into force from–

(A) 2008

(B) 2009

(D) 2011

(E) 2012

Answer : (E)

103. Which of the following best explains the meaning of the phrase “which could only be imagined few years back” as used in the passage ?

(A) It was doomed.

(B) It took us few years.

(D) Imagination is better than IT.

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

104. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) No city dumps its waste in lakes

(B) Some cities burn garbage

(D) e-waste was a much bigger challenge in the past

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

105. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?

(A) Some form of financial incentive is recommended for the producers

(B) Some financial incentive is recommended for the consumers

(D) The agencies handling e-waste have to obtain environmental clearances

(E) Those involved in e-waste management would need to upgrade their skills

Answer : (A)

Directions (Q. 106-108)—Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.

106. Clearance

(A) Cleaning

(B) Permission

(D) Remedy

(E) Clarity

Answer : (B)

107. Turn

(A) Throw

(B) Chance

(D) Transform

(E) Rotate

Answer : (D)

108. Potential

(A) Intelligence

(B) Aptitude

(D) Portion

(E) Will

Answer : (B)

Directions (Q. 109-110)—Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

109. Feasible

(A) Unattended

(B) Physical

(D) Unviable

(E) Wasteful

Answer : (D)

110. Indifference

(A) Interest

(B) Difference

(D) Rule-bound

(E) Insignificance

Answer : (A)

PART – III

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 111–120)—What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

111. 3·8 × 5·6 × 11·5 – 31·653 = ?

(A) 234·880

(B) 265·404

(D) 256·072

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : ? = 3·8 × 5·6 × 11·5 – 31·653

= 244·72 – 31·653

= 213·067

112.

of 1218 = ?

(A) 415

(B) 384

(D) 346

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

Explanation : ? =

of 1218

= 464

113. 93% of 456 = ?

(A) 435·06

(B) 419·02

(D) 424·08

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : ? =

of 456

= 424·08

114. 8·2 × ? = 465·76

(A) 56·8

(B) 48·6

(D) 74·2

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : 8·2 × ? = 465·76

\ ? =

= 56·8

115. 1485 ÷ (44 × 0·75) = ?

(A) 33

(B) 56

(D) 67

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : ? = 1485 ÷ (44 × 0·75)

= 45

116. 128 ÷ 8 ÷ 0·4 = ?

(A) 36

(B) 42

(D) 54

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

Explanation : ? = 128 ÷ 8 ÷ 0·4

= 40

117. 56064 ÷

= 48 × 16

(A) 768

(B) 1168

(D) 5329

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Q

= 48 × 16

= 73

\ ? = (73)2

= 5329

118. 63% of 781 + ? = 666

(A) 164·85

(B) 173·97

(D) 195·79

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Q

of 781 + ? = 666

= 666

\ ? = 666 – 492·03

= 173·97

119. 1587 + 2277 = ? × 69

(A) 49

(B) 64

(D) 56

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : ? × 69 = 1587 + 2277

\ ? =

= 56

120.

(A) 23

(B) 529

(D) 27

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : + 24 =

= 47 – 24

= 23

\ ? = (23)2

= 529

121. The difference between 63% of a number and 45% of the same number is 342. What is 78% of that number ?

(A) 1342

(B) 1482

(D) 1670

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Let the number be x

= 342

Þ x =

= 1482

122. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 4,000 at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. after 3 years ?

(A) Rs. 612

(B) Rs. 578

(D) Rs. 630·5

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : C.I. =

= Rs. 630·50

123. A car covers a distance of 1450 kms. in 25 hours. What is the speed of the car ?

(A) 58 kms./hr.

(B) 66 kms./hr.

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Speed of the car =

= 58 km/hr.

124. The average age of a man and his son is 40 years. The ratio of their ages is 7 : 3 respectively. What is the man’s age ?

(A) 70 years

(B) 63 years

(D) 49 years

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Let the age of the man and his son be 7x years and 3x years respectively

= 40

Þ x =

= 8

\ Age of the man = 7 × 8

= 56 years

125. A canteen requires 28 dozen bananas for a week. How many dozen bananas will it require for 47 days ?

(A) 2256

(B) 322

(D) 2352

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Reqd. number of bananas

= 2256

126. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number ?

(A) 83

(B) 79

(D) 77

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : Let the number be x and (x + 2)

Q x (x + 2) = 6399

Þ x2 + 2x – 6399 = 0

Þ (x + 81) (x – 79) = 0

\ x = 79

127. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B & D ?

(A) 11440

(B) 11024

(D) 11232

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Let A = x

B = x + 2

C = x + 4

D = x + 6

and E = x + 8

= 106

Þ 5x + 20 = 106 × 5

Þ x =

= 102

\ B × D = 104 × 108

= 11232

128. The owner of a cell phone shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 7,011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone ?

(A) Rs. 5,845

(B) Rs. 6,750

(D) Rs. 6,925

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

Explanation : C. P. of the cell phone

= Rs. 5700

129. If (16)³ is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number ?

(A) 69

(B) 59

(D) 79

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Let the number be x

Q x2 – (16)3 = 3825

Þ x2 = 3825 + 4096

= 7921

\ x = 89

130. If an amount of Rs. 85,602 is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each person get ?

(A) Rs. 2,594

(B) Rs. 2,954

(D) Rs. 2,495

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Reqd. amount

= Rs. 2594

131. 43% of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number ?

(A) 416

(B) 429

(D) 384

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Let the number be x

= 559

Þ x =

\ x ×

= 416

132. If the fractions

and

are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : = 0·2

= 0·28

= 0·6

= 0·83

= 0·846

\ Fourth in order, when arranged in descending order is =

133. If (92)² is added to the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 10768. What is the number ?

(A) 46

(B) 2304

(D) 2116

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Let the number be x

Q x2 + (92)2 = 10768

Þ x2 = 10768 – 8464

= 2304

\ x =

= 48

134. The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school ?

(A) 49 : 52

(B) 51 : 50

(D) 52 : 49

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Q No. of boys = 5050 – 2450

= 2600

\ Reqd. ratio = 2450 : 2600

= 49 : 52

135. Sumit invests Rs. 4,762, which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is his monthly income ?

(A) Rs. 28,572

(B) Rs. 23,810

(D) Rs. 14,285

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : Sumit’s monthly income

= 4762 ×

= Rs. 19048

136. Ms. Vishakha deposits an amount of Rs. 35,800 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 15 p.c.p.a. for 4 years. What total amount will Ms. Vishakha get at the end of 4 years ?

(A) Rs. 45,680

(B) Rs. 39,880

(D) Rs. 57,280

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Reqd. amount = 35800 +

= Rs. 57280

137. There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred ?

(A) 603

(B) 402

(D) 703

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Reqd. number =

= 603

138. In an examination Shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination ?

(A) 83

(B) 65

(D) 78

(E) 70

Answer : (E)

Explanation : Reqd. % =

= 69·76%

; 70%

139. What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 8,930 at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. after 5 years ?

(A) Rs. 5,413

(B) Rs. 2,678

(D) Rs. 4,752

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : S. I. =

= Rs. 3572

140. The cost of 12 Chairs and 15 Tables is Rs. 58,968. What is the cost of 4 Chairs and 5 Tables ?

(A) Rs. 19,656

(B) Rs. 29,484

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : Reqd. cost =

= Rs. 19656

PART – IV

Reasoning Ability

141. In a certain code language ‘TERMINAL’ is written as ‘NSFUMBOJ’ and ‘TOWERS’ is written as ‘XPUTSF’. How is ‘MATE’ written in that code ?

(A) FUBN

(B) UFNB

(D) BNDS

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation :

and

Similarly,

So,

142. The positions of how many digits in the number 5314687 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number ?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Answer : (C)

Explanation :

So, position of two digits, i.e. 3 and 6, remains unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number.

143. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series ?

AC EG IK MO ?

(A) PR

(B) QS

(D) PS

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation :

So, Q S should come in the place of question mark.

144. ‘ERID’ is related to ‘DIRE’ in the same way as ‘RIPE’ is related to–

(A) EPIR

(B) PERI

(D) PEIR

(E) IPRE

Answer : (A)

Explanation : ERID ® DIRE. Alphabets are written in reverse order.

Thus, RIPE ® EPIR

145. How many meaningful English words can be made with the third, fifth, seventh and ninth letters of the word DOWNGRADED, using each letter only once in each word ?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Answer : (B)

Explanation : The third, fifth, seventh and ninth letters are W, G, A and E respectively.

Only one meaningful word can be formed using these letters which is WAGE.

Directions (Q. 146-150)—In each question below, a group of digits/symbols is given followed by four combinations of letters (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations (A), (B), (C) and (D) correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the of that combination as your answer. If none of the four correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (E), i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.

Digit/Symbol :

Letter code :

B E P A K D F H Q I R J U M V T

Conditions :

(i) If the first unit in the group is an even digit and the last unit is a symbol, both these are to be coded as the code for the symbol.

(ii) If the first unit in the group is an odd digit and the last unit is an even digit, their codes are to be interchanged.

(iii) If both the first and the last units in the group are symbols both these are to be coded as ‘X’.

146. @91$26

(A) JEFHRP

(B) PEFHRP

(D) PEFHRJ

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

Explanation : @ 9 1 $ 2 6

¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯

P E F H R J

(A) KMDTAE

(B) KDMATE

(D) KDMTAK

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯

K D M T P E

148. 4@312d

(A) VPKFRV

(B) VPKFRI

(D) IPKFRV

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

Explanation : 4 @ 3 1 2 d

¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯

V P K F R V

(Condition (i) applies.)

149. %4187H

(A) QIFDMU

(B) UIFDMQ

(D) UIFDMU

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation : % 4 1 8 7 H

¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯

X I F D M X

(Condition (iii) applies.)

150. 9124d6

(A) EFRIVJ

(B) JFRIVE

(D) XFRIVX

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : 9 1 2 4 d 6

¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯

J F R I V E

(Condition (ii) applies.)

Directions (Q. 151-155)—In the following questions, the symbols d, %, H, $ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

‘P%Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.

‘PHQ’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.

‘PdQ’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

‘P$Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer

(A) if only conclusion I is true.

(B) if only conclusion II is true.

(D) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

151. Statements : D $ T, T % M, M H J

Conclusions :

I. J d D

II. M © D

Answer : (B)

Explanation : D = T....(i); T > M....(ii); M < J....(iii)

Combining all the three, we have, D = T > M < J Þ No relationship between D and J can be established. Hence conclusion I is not true. Again, combining (i) and (ii), we get, D = T > M Þ D > M Þ M < D. Therefore, conclusion II is not true.

152. Statements : B H K, K $ N, N % R

Conclusions :

I. R $ K

II. R H K

Answer : (C)

Explanation : B < K....(i); K = N....(ii) N > R....(iii)

Combining (ii) and (iii), we get K = N > R Þ R > K. Therefore neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

But both are exhaustive. Hence either conclusion I (R = K) or conclusion II (R < K) is true.

153. Statements : H % F, F H W, W $ E

Conclusions :

I. E d F

II. H d W

Answer : (A)

Explanation : H > F....(i); F < W....(ii); W = E....(iii)

Combining (ii) and (iii), we get F < W = E Þ F < E Þ E > F. Hence conclusion I is true. Again, combining (i) and (ii), we have, H > F < W Þ No relationship between H and W can be determined. Therefore conclusion II is not true.

Conclusions :

I. M H D

II. Z d K

Answer : (D)

Explanation : Z > D....(i); D < K....(ii); K > M....(iii)

Combining (ii) and (iii), we have D < K > M Þ No relationship between D and M can be determined. Hence conclusion I does not follow. Again, combining (i) and (ii), we get, Z > D < K Þ No relationship between Z and K can be determined. Therefore conclusion II is not true.

Conclusions :

I. F d B

II. W H N

Answer : (E)

Explanation : W < B....(i); N > B;....(ii); N < F....(iii)

Combining (ii) and (iii), we have B < N < F Þ B < F Þ F > B. Therefore conclusion I is true. Again, combining (i) and (ii), we get, W < B < N Þ W < N. Hence conclusion II

Directions (Q. 156-160)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. V is second to the left of T. T is fourth to the right of M. D and P are not immediate neighbours of T. D is third to the right of P. W is not an immediate neighbour of P. P is to the immediate left of K.

156. Who is second to the left of K ?

(A) P

(B) R

(D) W

(E) Data inadequate

Answer : (B)

For (156-160) :

157. Who is on the immediate left of V ?

(A) D

(B) M

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

158. Who is third to the right of V ?

(A) T

(B) K

(D) M

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

159. What is R’s position with respect to V ?

(A) Third to the right

(B) Fifth to the right

(D) Second to the left

(E) Fourth to the left

Answer : (A)

160. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above seating arrangement and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

(A) DW

(B) TP

(D) RD

(E) KR

Answer : (D)

161. In a certain code DROWN is written as MXNSC. How is BREAK written in that code ?

(A) LBFSC

(B) JBDSA

(D) LZFQC

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation :

162. Among M, N, T, R and D each having a different height, T is taller than D but shorter than M. R is taller than N but shorter than D. Who among them is the tallest ?

(A) D

(B) T

(D) R

(E) N

Answer : (C)

Explanation : M > T > D > R > N

163. How many such digits are there in the number 5436182 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Answer : (B)

Explanation : 5 4 3 6 1 8 2

1 2 3 4 5 6 8

164. What should come next in the letter series given below ?

D D E D E F D E F G D E F G H D E F G H I D E F G H I J D

(A) D

(B) E

(D) J

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : D, DE, DEF, DEFG, DEFGH, DEFGHI, DEFGHIJ, DE

165. The letters in the word MORTIFY are changed in such a way that the vowels are replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and the consonants are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet. Which of the following will be the fourth letter from the right end of the new set of letters ?

(A) S

(B) H

(D) N

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

Explanation : M O R T I F Y ® N N S U H G Z.

4th letter from the right in the newset is U.

166. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) Leaf

(B) Flower

(D) Fruit

(E) Tree

Answer : (E)

Explanation : All the rest are parts of ‘Tree’.

167. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) Garlic

(B) Ginger

(D) Radish

(E) Brinjal

Answer : (E)

Explanation : All the rest grow inside the ground.

168. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALPE using each letter only once in each word ?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Answer : (E)

Explanation : L E A P, P E A L, P L E A and P A L E

169. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) 24

(B) 48

(D) 72

(E) 64

Answer : (E)

Explanation : Only 64 is a perfect square number.

170. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHAMBERS each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Answer : (C)

Explanation :

A – C and R – S

Directions (Q. 171-175)—In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer—

(A) If only Conclusion I follows.

(B) If only Conclusion II follows.

(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

(E) If both Conclusions I and II follow.

171. Statements : Some toys are desks. Some desks are pens. All pens are rods.

Conclusions :

I. Some rods are toys.

II. Some pens are toys.

Answer : (D)

Explanation :

172. Statements : Some tables are huts. No hut is ring. All rings are bangles.

Conclusions :

I. Some bangles are tables.

II. No bangle is table.

Answer : (C)

Explanation :

173. Statements : All stars are clouds. All clouds are rains. All rains are stones.

Conclusions :

I. All rains are stars.

II. All clouds are stones.

Answer : (B)

Explanation :

174. Statements : All windows are doors. Some doors are buildings. All buildings are cages.

Conclusions : I. Some cages are doors.

II. Some buildings are windows.

Answer : (A)

Explanation :

175. Statements : Some chairs are rooms. All rooms are trees. All trees are poles.

Conclusions : I. Some poles are chairs.

II. Some trees are chairs.

Answer : (E)

Explanation :

Directions (Q. 176-180)—Study the following arrangement carefully and asnwer the questions given below :

176. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) D J I

(B) F U A

(D) B « ©

(E) I # 5

Answer : (C)

Explanation :

177. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?

D J K 2 T 4 % F 3 ?

(A) U $ V

(B) U $ N

(D) 8 N I

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Explanation :

178. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a symbol ?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Answer : (B)

Explanation : U 8 $

179. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a consonant ?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Answer : (D)

Explanation : 4 W % 6 Q @ 7 H I

180. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the twelfth from the right end of the above arrangement ?

(A) 8

(B) 7

(D) A

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

Explanation : 4th element from the right is ‘V’ and 4th to the right of ‘V’ is ‘7’.

Directions (Q. 181-185)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at the center. F is third to the right of B who is third to the right of H. A is third to the left of H. C is fourth to the left of A. E is third to the right of D who is not a neighbour of A.

181. In which of the following pairs the second person is to the immediate right of the first person ?

(A) HC

(B) BE

(D) FA

(E) None of these

Answer : (A)

For Solution from Questions 181-185 :

182. Who is second to the right of D ?

(A) F

(B) G

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

Explanation : Second to the right of D is C.

183. Who is third to the left of G ?

(A) H

(B) D

(D) F

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

184. Who is fourth to the left of C ?

(A) F

(B) A

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

185. What is B’s position with respect to D ?

(1) Fourth to the right

(2) Fourth to the left

(3) Fifth to the left

(4) Fifth to the right

(A) (1) only

(B) (2) only

(D) (3) and (4) only

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

Directions (Q. 186-190)—In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.

Letter : P M A K T I J E R N D F U W B

Symbol

Conditions :

(i) If both the first and the last letters of the group are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.

(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.

186. BDATFE

(A) 6$8146

(B) 6$814@

(D) @$8146

(E) None of these

Answer : (D)

187. AWBRND

(A) $563©8

(B) 8563©$

(D) 8536©$

(E) None of these

Answer : (B)

188. EMNTKU

(A) «#©1%@

(B) @#©14«

(D) #@©1%«

(E) None of these

Answer : (C)

189. MDEAJI

(A) 1$@82#

(B) #$@821

(D) #$@82#

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

190. RKUMFP

(A) 7%«#43

(B) 3«%#47

(D) 3%«#47

(E) None of these

Answer : (E)

Directions (Q. 191-195)—In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, % and « are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.

‘P « Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true ?

Give answer—

(A) If only Conclusion I is true.

(B) If only Conclusion II is true.

(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

(E) If both Conclusions I and II are true.

Conclusions :

I. R $ J

II. F © R

Answer : (D)

Explanation : R $ M ® R > M

M © F ® M < F

and F % J ® F ³ J

\ R > M < F ³ J

I. R $ J ® R > J (False)

Conclusions :

I. N $ D

II. K $ M

Answer : (B)

D @ K ® D £ K

and K « N ® K = N

\ M < D £ K = N

I. N $ D ® N > D (False)

II. K $ M ® K > M (True)

193. Statements : B @ D, D $ M, M & N

Conclusions :

I. N @ D

II. D $ N

Answer : (B)

Explanation : B @ D ® B £ D

D $ M ® D > M

and M « N ® M = N

\ B £ D > M = N

I. N @ D ® N £ D (False)

II. D $ N ® D > N (True)

194. Statements : F $ W, W % J, J @ N

Conclusions :

I. J @ F

II. N % W

Answer : (D)

Explanation : F $ W ® F > W

W % J ® W £ J

and J @ N ® J £ N

\ F > W ³ J < N

I. J @ F ® J £ F (False)

II. N % W ® N ³ W (False)

Conclusions :

I. W © T

II. R © T

Answer : (A)

T % R ® T ³ R

and R $ W ® R > W

\ F < T ³ R > W

Directions (Q. 196-200)—Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

(A) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(D) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

(E) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

196. Towards which direction is Village M from Village T ?

I. Village P is to the south of Village M and Village P is to the west of Village T.

II. Village K is to the east of Village M and Village K is to the north of Village T.

Answer : (C)

Explanation : From I. M

P T

Thus, it can be found that M is to the north-west of T. So, I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

From II. M K

Thus, it can be deduced that M is to the north-west of T. So, II alone is also sufficient to answer the question. Thus, the answer can be found by using either of the statements alone.

197. On which day in July was definitely Mohan’s mother’s birthday ?

I. Mohan correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before eighteenth but after twelfth July.

II. Mohan’s sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after fifteenth but before nineteenth July.

Answer : (D)

Explanation : From I. Possible dates of birthday of Mohan’s mother are 13th, 14th, 15th, 16th or 17th of July

Thus, I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From II. Possible dates of birthday of Mohan’s mother are 16th, 17th or 18th of July.

Thus, II alone is also not sufficient to answer the question. Now, even after combining I and II, it is found that Mohan’s mother’s birthday is either on 16th or 17th July.

Thus, the answer cannot be found even after combining both the statements. Hence, option (D) follows.

198. How is D related to M ?

I. K and D are the only sisters of R.

II. M is married to R’s father.

Answer : (E)

Explanation : From I. It is clear that K, D and R are siblings while K and D are females. But no relation can be found between D and M.

From II. It can be found that R’s father is certainly the father of K and D as well. Since M is married to R’s father, it means M is the mother of R.

Thus, after combining I and II, we can definitely say that M is the mother of D. So, both statements I and II are required to answer.

199. How is ‘near’ written in a code language ?

I. ‘go near the tree’ is written as ‘sa na pa ta’ in that code language.

II. ‘tree is near home’ is written as ‘ja pa da sa’ in that code language.

Answer : (D)

Explanation : From I. go near the tree ® sa na pa ta Thus, code for ‘near’ cannot be found.

From II. tree is near home ® ja pa da sa Again, code for ‘near’ cannot be found.

After combining I and II, it is found that the code for ‘near’ can be either ‘sa’ or ‘pa’.

Thus, the answer cannot be found even after combining both the statements.

200. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having scored different marks in an exam, who has scored the lowest marks ?

I. D has scored more marks than only three of them.

II. A has scored more marks than only E.

Answer : (B)

Explanation : From I. – > D > – – – is obtained if all of them are arranged in descending order of the marks scored.

But we cannot say who among them scored the lowest marks.

From II. It is clear that E has scored the lowest marks. Thus, II alone is sufficient to answer to the question.

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