RBI Grade 'B' Officer Examination Solved Paper 2017
PART – I
General Awareness
1. Who has won the 2016 Fide Women’s Grand Prix trophy?
(A) Geetha Narayanan Gopal
(B) Harika Dronavalli
(C) Olga Girya
(D) Koneru Humpy
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Harika Dronavalli, an
Indian chess grandmaster, has won the 2016 Fide Women’s Grand Prix trophy by
defeating Russia’s Olga Girya in the final in Chendu, China .
2. Which state government of India has recently signed MoU with the
Netherlands to set up a skill development centre for farmers?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The Uttar Pradesh
government has signed a MoU with the Netherlands to set up a skill development
centre to help farmers. As per the MoU, Netherlands will help Uttar Pradesh in
solid waste management, urban development and infrastructure, water management,
water supply, cleanliness of water resources, sewage treatment, transport
management and revival of water bodies. It would also help in land reclamation
of 1,500 acres in the Ganga basin in Kanpur and development of cultural
heritage. The MoU will be effective for 3 years.
3. The book “Furiously Happy: A Funny book about Horrible Things” has
been authored by whom?
(A) Allie Brosh
(B) Alexandra Brosh
(C) Jenny Lawson
(D) Roy Sorensen
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The book “Furiously
Happy: A Funny book about Horrible Things” has been authored by Jenny Lawson.
The book explores her lifelong battle with mental illness. This is a book about
accepting everything that makes us who we are, beautiful and imperfect, and
then using it to find joy in fantastic and outrageous ways. The author is an
award-winning humor writer known for her great openness in sharing her struggle
with depression and mental illness.
4. The 2016 Homeless World Cup has started in which of the following
cities?
(A) Tokyo
(B) Kochi
(C) New York
(D) Glasgow
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : The 14th edition of
Homeless World Cup 2016 has started in Glasgow, Scotland from July 10 and will
continue till July 16. It is an annual football tournament focusing on
advocating a global awareness about homelessness. Recently, Slum Soccer has
partnered with Tata Trusts and Football Players Association of India (FPAI) for
team India’s participation in the world cup. The Slum Soccer is an organization
that uses football as a tool for the social upliftment of downtrodden and
at-risk youth.
5. “Operation Megh Prahar”, the battle exercise has been conducted by
which Indian military force?
(A) Indian Army
(B) Indian Air Force
(C) Indian Navy
(D) Indian Coastal Guard
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The battle exercise
“Operation Megh Prahar” has been conducted by Indian Army on the banks of the
Yamuna River on July 14, 2016 to test the effectiveness of the ultra modern
Tank T-90 and BMP-2 in fighting across opposed river obstacle in Mathura, Uttar
Pradesh. This exercise also showcased the importance of incorporating the 3rd
dimension in bridging the gap of an obstacle and helping in capture of depth
obstacle by a mechanized formation. .
6. What is the 2016 theme of the World Youth Skills Day (WYSD)?
(A) Youth: To
motivate for skill development
(B) Youth skills
for work and life
(C) Skills
Development to Improve Youth Employment (D) World Skills for peace and
prosperity
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The World Youth
Skills Day (WYSD) is observed every year on July 15 to create awareness about
the importance of investing in youth skills development. The 2016 theme is
“Skills Development to Improve Youth Employment”.
7. Who has been appointed as the new Chairman of the Central Board of
Secondary Education (CBSE)? (A) Sarvendra
Vikram Bahadur Singh
(B) Rakesh Kumar Chaturvedi
(C) Pramod Kumar Das
(D) Girish Chandra Murmu
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Rakesh Kumar
Chaturvedi, a 1987 batch IAS officer of Madhya Pradesh cadre, has been
appointed as the new Chairman of the Central Board of Secondary Education
(CBSE) for a period of 5 years. The post was lying vacant since December 2014.
8. The 2016 Tuluni festival has been held in which state of India?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Nagaland
(C) Sikkim
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The Tuluni festival
is celebrated every year on July 8 by Sumi Naga tribe of Nagaland to mark the
end of dry season and the beginning of new fruits. The premier festival is
marked by prayers and offerings to Litsaba, the deity of fruitfulness who gives
life and protection to the crops. The Tuluni festival symbolizes fraternity,
solidarity, sharing and oneness not only among the Sumi community but Nagas as
a whole.
9. The first edition of India Skills Competition has started in which
city of India?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) New Delhi
(D) Bangalore
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The first edition
of India Skills Competition has recently launched by President Pranab Mukherjee
in New Delhi on July 15, 2016 and will be continued till July 17, 2016. Around
4,820 candidates have registered to compete at the competition. The Ministry of
Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and National Skill Development
Corporation (NSDC) have organized “India Skills” to select the best talent in
24 skills/trades viz. hair stylist, welding, car painting, auto body repair,
graphic designing, robotics, etc The shortlisted candidates from these events
will qualify for the final selection for World Skills International Competition
at Abu Dhabi (Dubai ) in 2017. The India Skills is a platform that will bring
youth, industries, and educators together and provide youth an opportunity to
compete, experience, and learn how to become the best in the skill of their
choice.
10. Which Indian corporate has become the first-ever to issue Masala
Bond on London Stock Exchange (LSE)?
(A) HDFC
(B) ICICI
(C) Axis Bank
(D) Yes Bank
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC) has become the
first Indian company to issue rupee-denominated bonds “masala bonds” on London
Stock Exchange (LSE). The bond will help HDFC to diversify its borrowing
profile and access global investors.The Masala bond refers to a bond through
which Indian entities can raise money from foreign markets in rupee, and not in
foreign currency. By issuing bonds in rupees, an Indian entity is protected
against the risk of currency fluctuation, typically associated with borrowing
in foreign currency. With this, masala bonds will help in internationalization
of the rupee and will expand the Indian bond markets. Though, the bonds are traded
on the LSE, not in India.
11. Who has won the 2016
Women’s Singles Wimbledon Championship?
(A) Simona Halep
(B) Serena Williams
(C) Angelique Kerber
(D) Garbine Muguruza
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Serena Williams has won the 2016 Women’s Singles Wimbledon
Championship by defeating Angelique Kerber in the final by 7–5, 6–3 in London,
United Kingdom. With this win, Williams equaled Steffi Graf’s Open Era record
of 22 major singles titles.
12. Who has won the 2016
Computer History Museum Book Prize?
(A) Manoj Bhudholia
(B) Yogesh Sen
(C) Dinesh Sharma
(D) Mayank Jain
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Dinesh Sharma, the Indian columnist and author, has won the 2016
Computer History Museum Book Prize for his book “The Outsourcer: The Story of
India’s IT Revolution”. The book is a panoramic history of development of
software and information technology in India spanning almost half a century.
The prize of $1,000 is awarded by the Special Interest Group for Computers,
Information and Society (SIGCIS ) for the History of Technology.
13. DRDO has signed pact with
which IITs for Centre for Propulsion Technology (CoPT)?
(A) IIT Bombay and IIT Madras
(B) IIT Indore and IIT Mandi
(C) IIT Delhi and IIT Bhubaneswar
(D) IIT Kharagpur and IIT Madras
(E) None of these Answer :
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) have
recently signed an agreement with IIT-Bombay and Madras to establish a bi-nodal
Centre of Propulsion Technology (CoPT) at the two institutions. The purpose of
the agreement is to achieve synergy between DRDO and IITs for channelizing
research efforts towards developing products and aerospace technologies. The
CoPT will facilitate and undertake multidisciplinary directed research in the
focused areas of futuristic aero engines, hypersonic propulsion for long
duration flights, solid propellant combustion modelling and morphing aircraft
technologies. It will also undertake advanced collaborative research in the
areas of critical defence technologies.
14. Who has won the 2016 Men’s
Singles Wimbledon Championship?
(A) Rafael Nadal
(B) Milos Raonic
(C) Novak Djokovic
(D) Andy Murray
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : Andy Murray from Great
Britain has won the 2016 Men’s Singles Wimbledon Championship by defeating
Milos Raonic in the final by 6-4, 7-6,7-6 at centre court in London, United
Kingdom. With this, he clinched a 2nd Wimbledon title and third Grand Slam
crown of his career.
15. The 2016 Mountain Echoes literary festival will be held in which
country?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) India
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The 7th edition of
Mountain Echoes literary festival 2016 will be held in Thimpu, Bhutan on August
26 to 28, 2016. It is an initiative of India-Bhutan Foundation in association
with Siyahi, a literary organization. The festival aims to provide a platform for
the greatest literary minds to engage in a cultural dialogue. In 2016, the
festival will focus on climate change, women’s voices and travel writing.
Beside this, the festival will also announced the first edition of ‘Bonfire
Tales’: A cultural journey that travels via motorcycle to the Phobjikha valley
in the impressive Black Mountains of Bhutan and then onto the warm climes of
Punakha .
16. What is the theme of 2016 United Nations World Population Day?
(A) Investing in teenage girls
(B) Equality empowers
(C) Be counted: say what you need
(D) Vulnerable populations in emergencies
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The United Nations
World Population Day is observed every year on July 11 to focus attention on
the urgency and importance of population issue. The 2016 theme is “Investing in
Teenage Girls” that calls for action to address the vast challenges faced by
teenage girls across the world. As per
the theme, if a teenage girl has the power, the means and the information to
make her own decisions in life, she is more likely to overcome obstacles that
stand between her and a healthy, productive future. This will benefit her, her
family and her community.
17. The Gangajal delivery scheme has been started from which city of
India?
(A) Patna
(B) Ranchi
(C) Dehradun
(D) Bhubaneswar
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The Gangajal delivery scheme has been launched at General Post
Master office in Patna, Bihar. The initiative to deliver ‘Gangajal’, a holy
water from the river Ganga, from Indian Postal Services has been launched by
Union Minister of Law and Justice Ravi Shankar Prasad and Minister of State for
Communications Manoj Sinha. Under the scheme, the pious Gangajal, brought from
Gangotri and Rishikesh, would be delivered at the doorsteps of people at
nominal prices.
18. Who has won the 2016
Formulae One British Grand Prix championship?
(A) Kimi Raikkonen
(B) Lewis Hamilton
(C) Max Verstappen
(D) Nico Rosberg
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Mercedes driver Lewis Hamilton from England has won the 2016
Formulae One British Grand Prix championship in Silverstone, United Kingdom. It
is his 4th title of the 2016 season after Monaco Grand Prix, Canadian Grand
Prix, and Austrian Grand Prix. .
19. The book “One Part Woman”
has been authored by whom?
(A) Nanda Devi
(B) Perumal Murugan
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Gautam Bhatia
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The book “Mathorubhagan ( or One Part Woman )” has been authored by
tamil writer Perumal Murugan. The novel’s focus is on recording the travails of
a childless couple subjected to community ridicule. Recently, the novel is in
news because the Madras High Court has invalidated the settlement, dismissed
the criminal complaints and dismissed the petition seeking a ban on the book.
The issue was that some Hindu groups took offence to this book and alleged that
the author portrayed the Kailasanathar temple in Tiruchengode and its women
devotees in bad light. They demanded that the book should be ban.
20. Which national football
team has won the 2016 UEFA European football championship?
(A) France
(B) Portugal
(C) Germany
(D) Spain
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Portugal has won the 15th edition of UEFA European football
championship 2016 (or Euro Cup 2016) by defeating host France by 1-0 at
Saint-Denis in Paris. It is Portugal’s first UEFA Euro Cup title. With this,
Portugal has earned the right to compete at the 2017 FIFA Confederations Cup in
Russia.
21. How much interest subsidy
for farmers has been approved by Government of India (GoI) for Fiscal Year
2016-17?
(A) 7.5 %
(B) 5%
(C) 6.7%
(D) 8%
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The Government of
India (GoI) will provide interest subvention of 5 % for all farmers for short
term crop loans up to Rs 3 lakh for Fiscal Year 2016-17, provided they repay in
time, or else a higher rate of 7% will be charged. Thus, farmers will have to
effectively pay only 4% as interest. Beside this, an interest subsidy of 2 %
has also been cleared for loans upto 6 months for small and marginal farmers
who would have to borrow at 9 % for the post harvest storage of their produce.
For farmers affected by Natural Calamities, the interest subvention of 2 % will
be provided to Banks for the first year on the restructured amount. The
Interest subvention scheme is for public and private sector banks, cooperative
banks, regional rural banks and NABARD for providing short term crop loan to farmers.
Earlier, the subvention scheme was implemented by the Finance Ministry. It was
transferred to the Agriculture Ministry in 2016.
22. Who is the 2016 winner of The Caine Prize for African writing?
(A) Lidudumalingani
(B) Namwali Serpell
(C) Abdul Adan
(D) Lesley Nneka Arimah
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Lidudumalingani,
the South African writer, filmmaker and photographer, has won the 17th edition
of prestigious Caine Prize 2016 for his short story “Memories We Lost”. The
winning story explores mental health through the relationship of two sisters in
a South African village, one of whom is schizophrenic and the other her
protector. The sister’s situation deteriorates as her care is entrusted to
Nkunzi, a local man who employs traditional techniques to rid people of their
demons. The Caine Prize is an annual literature prize awarded to an African
writer of a short story published in the English language to encourage and
highlight the richness and diversity of African writing by bringing it to a
wider audience internationally. .
23. The book “When Breath Becomes Air” has been authored by whom?
(A) Ruskin Bond
(B) Raj Kotwal
(C) Paul Kalanithi
(D) Zalmay Khalilzad
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The book “When
Breath Becomes Air” has been authored by Paul Kalanithi. The book is an
unforgettable, life-affirming reflection on the challenge of facing death and
on the relationship between doctor and patient, from a brilliant writer who
became both.
24. The Indravati National Park (INP) is located at which state?
(A) Assam
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The Indravati
National Park (INP) is located in Bijapur district, Chhattisgarh. It is also
home to gaur (Indian bison), nilgai, blackbuck, chausingha (four-horned
antelope), sambar, Indian muntjac, Indian spotted chevrotain, wild boar,
tigers, leopards, sloth bears, dholes (wild dog), striped hyenas, etc .
25. Who is the newly appointed Union Minister of Ministry of Human
Resource Development (MHRD)? (A) Jayant
Sinha
(B) Prakash Javadekar
(C) Santosh Kumar Gangwar
(D) Arjun Ram Meghwal
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Prakash Javadekar
is the newly appointed Union Minister of Ministry of Human Resource Development
(MHRD). He succeeded Smriti Irani. Previously, Javadekar was the Minister of
State (Independent Charge) for Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
26. The world’s largest Charkha has been set up in which city of
India?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Porbander
(D) Ahmedabad
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The world’s largest
Charkha has been set up by the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
Minister Kalraj Mishra at Terminal 3 of the Indira Gandhi International Airport
(IGIA) in New Delhi.The 4-tones Charkha made from high-quality Burma teak wood
is estimated to last for over 50 years. It is 9 feet wide, 17 feet tall and 30
feet long. The Charkha is a symbol of India’s glorious heritage and an
inspiring reminder of freedom struggle led by Mahatma Gandhi. It represents
Swadeshi, self-sufficiency and interdependence because the wheel is at the
center of a network of cotton growers, weavers, distributors and users.
27. Which Indian state police has recently launched 24-hour helpline
to report incidents of cow smuggling?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Chhatisgarh
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The Haryana Police
has recently launched a 24-hour helpline “8284030455” for people to report
incidents of the smuggling or slaughter of cows in the state, where cattle
slaughter and beef sale are already banned. The information will then be
relayed to police officials posted in the area who will then send a special
team set up for the purpose. The initiative has been set up after a video
surfaced on social media where two men were being forced to eat a cow dung
concoction by members of ‘Gau Rakshak Dal’volunteers, after they were allegedly
caught with beef in their possession.
28. Which of the following cities is hosting the 2016 Woodpecker
Environment and Wildlife Film Festival?
(A) Shimla
(B) Guwahati
(C) Agartala
(D) Bhubaneswar
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The 4th edition of
Woodpecker Environment and Wildlife Film Festival 2016 will begin at historic
Gaiety Theatre in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh from July 7 and will continue till
July 9, 2016. In the festival, 45 films, including several national award winning
movies and five films from Himachal Pradesh will be screened, which is aimed at
highlighting the environmental concerns. The focus of the festival will be
critical environment and wildlife conservation issues like climate change,
forest conservation, biodiversity and man-animal conflict and success stories
will also be showcased in it. The festival is being organized by WWF India in
collaboration with CMSR foundation, Delhi with the support of Himachal
Pradesh’s Department of Language, Art and culture and Department of Forest.
29. Which state has become the first Indian state to introduce minimum
wages for part time workers?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Odisha
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Rajasthan has
become the first Indian state to introduce minimum wages for part time. As per
the notification, it is now mandatory to pay 50 % of the prescribed a day
minimum wage to a person who works for less than 4 hours in a day. With this
notification, now part time workers come under the Minimum Wages Act 1948.
30. Who has been appointed as the president of the first-ever
association for Indian Olympians “Olympians Association of India (OAI)”?
(A) Viren Rasquinha
(B) Shiva Keshavan
(C) Rajyavardhan Rathore
(D) Aneesh Madani
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The 5-time Olympian Shiva Keshavan has been appointed as the first
President of the Olympians Association of India (OAI). The OAI is the India’s
first and only non-profit organization founded by Olympians viz. Shiva
Keshavan(luge), Viren Rasquinha (hockey), Malav Shroff (sailing), Mary Kom
(boxing), etc. for Olympians in Indi(A) It is directly affiliated to the World
Association (WOA) under the International Olympic Committee. It has been formed
to voice the concerns of athletes. The OAI’s official Twitter account,
@IndianOlympians, will serve as the platform for real-time updates of the
Indian contingent at the Rio Olympics, which is scheduled to be held at August
2016. All Indian Olympians will be registered members and will contribute for
the cause and at the same time mutually benefit from projects initiated by the
OAI. It will be a platform for Olympians to take care of each other’s needs
beyond their sporting careers.
31. Sameer Mon is associated
with which sports?
(A) Boxing
(B) Wrestling
(C) Sprint
(D) Long Jump
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Sameer Mon, the famous sprinter from Manipur, has recently won
gold in 100 metre dash in 10.60 seconds at the 56th National Inter-state Senior
Athletics Championships in Hyderabad. With this, he became the fastest male
athlete in Indi(A) .
32. Which online grievance
redressal portal has been launched by Union Railway ministry for railway
employees?
(A) Aakalan
(B) Sahyog
(C) Nivaran
(D) Sahayata
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The Union Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu has recently launched
NIVARAN portal, an online system for redressal of service related grievance of
serving and former railway employees. This online system facilitates the
employees to lodge their grievances and also monitor the progress. The system
would also provide facility for lodging appeal to the higher authority in case
the decision is not found satisfactory. The highest controlling authorities
shall also be able to monitor the progress of grievance redressal by field
offices.
33. “Exercise RIMPAC 2016” the
multilateral naval exercise has started in which country?
(A) United States
(B) United Kingdom
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The 25th edition of Exercise Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) 2016 has
started in Pacific Ocean at Hawaii, United States from June 30, 2016 and will
continue till August 4, 2016. In it, 27 countries viz. India, the Philippines,
Australia, France, Japan, Malaysia, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Tonga, the
United Kingdom, etc, are participating. The RIMPAC is the world’s largest
international maritime warfare exercise, which provides a platform for
multilateral operational interactions aimed at increased interoperability and
development of common understanding of procedures for maritime security
operations.
34. Who has been sworn-in as
the new President of Philippines?
(A) Jejomar Binay
(B) Benigno Aquino
(C) Rodrigo Duterte
(D) Leni Robredo
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Rodrigo Duterte,
Maverick anti-crime candidate, has been sworn-in as the 16th President of the
Philippines, after a landslide election victory in May 2016. He succeeded
Benigno S. Aquino III and will have a tenure of 6 years.
35. How much amount has been approved by World Bank (WB) for technical
education quality improvement project in India?
(A) $121.50 million
(B) $201.50 million
(C) $222.50 million
(D) $355.50 million
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The World Bank
Board has approved the $ 201.50 million for Technical Education Quality
Improvement Project (TEQIP III) in Indi(A) The purpose of the project is to
increase quality and equity in participating engineering education institutes
and to improve the efficiency of the engineering education system in focus
states.The maturity period for the project is 25 years with an additional 5
years grace period.
36. What is the India’s rank in the World Bank’s 2016 Logistics
Performance Index (LPI)?
(A) 55th
(B) 78th
(C) 35th
(D) 19th
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : India has been
ranked 35th out of 160 countries in the World Bank’s 2016 Logistics Performance
Index (LPI). India’s logistics performance at its key international gateways
has improved in the last two years from 54 in 2014 to 35 in 2016, which will
not only boost programmes, such as Make in India, but also help in increasing
trade. The list is topped by Germany, followed by Luxembourg and Sweden.
Logistics organises the movement of goods through a network of activities and
services operating at global, regional, and local scale. The LPI is the World
Bank’s biennial measure of international supply chain efficiency.
37. The National Doctors’ Day is celebrated on which date in India?
(A) June 30
(B) July 5
(C) July 6
(D) July 1
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : The National Doctors’ Day is celebrated every year on July 1 in
India to honour the legendary physician and the 2nd Chief Minister of West
Bengal, Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy. This is a vital day for doctors as it provides
them with an opportunity to reflect on their career and remind them about
practicing the art and science of Medicine and Surgery in an ethical manner.
38. The book “The mind of the
terrorist: the Psychology of terrorism from the IRA to al-Qaeda” has been
authored by whom?
(A) Amitav Ghosh
(B) Ashwin Sanghi
(C) Kunal Basu
(D) Jerrold M. Post
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : The book “The mind of the terrorist: the Psychology of terrorism
from the IRA to al-Qaeda” has been authored by Dr. Jerrold M. Post. The book is
an exceptionally well-written book that makes a significant contribution to the
field of counter-terrorism. It is a comprehensive and informative account of
the psychology of terrorists and how their history has shaped their
motivations.
39. Ramchandra Chintaman Dhere,
who passed away recently, was a famous writer of which language?
(A) Marathi
(B) Urdu
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Ramchandra Chintaman Dhere (86), the famous Marathi writer, has
recently passed away in Pune, Maharashtra. He was known for his exhaustive
research in folk literature and bhakti tradition of Maharashtra. His works
include Vividh, Gangajali, Dakshinecha Lokdev Khandoba, History of Nath
Sampraday, Sri Venkateshwara, etc.
40. The Kawal Tiger Reserve
(KTR) is located in which state of India?
(A) Assam
(B) Kerala
(C) Telengana
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR) is located at Jannaram mandal of
Adilabad district in Telangana. The reserve covers a core area of 892.23 sq km
and a buffer zone of 1,123.21 sq km. It is home to many mammal species such as
tiger, leopard, gaur, cheetal, sambar, nilgai, barking deer, chowsingha, sloth
bear, etc.
41. Which Indian personality
has been conferred with the honorary professorship by the Nanjing Audit
University (NAU),China?
(A) Urjit Patel
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) Shashi Kant
Sharma
(D) Duvvuri
Subbarao
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Shashi Kant Sharma, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(CAG), has been conferred with the honorary professorship by the Nanjing Audit
University (NAU), Chin(A) It is the only university which is recognized by the
Institute of Internal Auditors.
42. The 2017 Global
Entrepreneurship Summit (GES) will be hosted by which country?
(A)
India
(B)
United States
(C)
Morocco
(D)
Kenya
(E)
None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The 2017 Global Entrepreneurship Summit (GES) will be hosted by
Indi(A) The summit will promote economic growth, inclusion and opportunities
among entrepreneurs from across the world, with a special focus on emerging
nations from Africa and Asi(A) The GES is a personal initiative of US President
Barack Obama to bring entrepreneurs from across the globe on one platform.
43. Which of the following
countries has become the newest member of the Missile Technology Control Regime
(MTCR)?
(A)
Canada
(B)
India
(C)
Brazil
(D)
Poland
(E)
None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : India has become the 35th member of the Missile Technology Control
Regime (MTCR) in June 2016. The MTCR membership will enable India to buy
high-end missile technology and also enhance its joint ventures with Russi(A)
The purpose of the MTCR is to restrict the proliferation of missiles, complete
rocket systems, unmanned air vehicles and related technology for those systems
capable of carrying a 500 kg payload for at least 300 kms, as well as systems
intended for the delivery of Weapons ofMass Destruction (WMD).
44. Which north-eastern state
of India has recently launched “Sakhi-One Stop Centre” to help women in
distress?
(A) Assam
(B) Manipur
(C)
Nagaland
(D)
Tripura
(E)
None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The Governor of Nagaland P B Acharya has recently launched women
helpline “181” and “Sakhi-One Stop Centre”, an institute that supports women
affected by violence, at the District Hospital Dimapur in Nagaland. The
helpline and centre are aimed to provide integrated assistance, medical, legal
and psychological counselling to women affected by violence. The ‘Sakhi-One
Stop Centre’is a centrally sponsored scheme by the Union Ministry of Women and
Child Development (MWCD) to be funded through Nirbhaya Fund.
45. Atanu Das, who recently qualified for 2016 Rio Olympics, is
associated with which sports?
(A) Wushu
(B) Long jump
(C) Sprint
(D) Archery
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : In Archery, Atanu
Das has recently qualified for 2016 Rio Olympics in the men’s individual
recurve event. It is officially confirmed by the Archery Association of India
(AAI) after a selection trial at Bengaluru. He will be the only Indian
representative in the men’s category at the Rio Games. It will be Das’s first
Olympics. The women’s recurve team of Deepika Kumari, L Bombayla Devi and
Laxmirani Manjhi has already qualified for the individual as well as team event
in Rio. Though, Indian men’s team failed to qualify in the final Olympic
qualification.
46. The book “R.(D)Burmania –Panchamemoirs” has been authored by whom?
(A) Kavita Krishnamurthy
(B) Chaitanya Padukone
(C) Pyarelal Sharma
(D) Talat Aziz
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The book
“R.(D)Burmania –Panchamemoirs” has been authored by Chaitanya Padukone, the
noted journalist. The book depicts the journey of the legendary music director
R D Burman. It is an attempt to string together amazing, amusing and agonizing
yet fascinating anecdotes, incidents and idiosyncrasies while unravelling the
mystique behind Bollywood’s most adored composer.
47. The Government of India (GoI) has extended the ban on the import
of milk and milk products of China till which year?
(A) June 2017
(B) March 2017
(C) December 2017
(D) January 2017
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The Government of
India (GoI) has extended the ban on import of milk and its products from China
till June 2017. The prohibition on import of milk and milk products includes
chocolates and chocolate products and candies/ confectionery/ food preparations
with milk or milk solids as an ingredient. Though, India does not import milk
products from China, but has imposed the ban as a preventive measure. Among
states, Uttar Pradesh is the leading milk producer, followed by Rajasthan and
Gujarat.
48. The 2016 Copa America Football tournament has been won by which of
the following countries?
(A) Argentina
(B) Colombia
(C) Chile
(D) Peru
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The Chile national
football team has won the 2016 Copa America Football tournament by defeating
Argentina in a penalty shootout at New Jersey, United States. This was the 2nd
Copa America title won by Chile after winning it for the first title in 2015
after defeating Argentina. With this, Chile has become the 4th nation to win at
least two consecutive Copa America titles, after Uruguay, Argentina and Brazil.
49. Which union ministry has recently signed pact with ISRO for
geo-tagging assets in each gram panchayat?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
(B) Ministry of AYUSH
(C) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(D) Ministry of Rural Development
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : The Union Rural
Development Ministry and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) have
recently signed a pact for geo-tagging the assets created under the rural job
guarantee scheme “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(MGNREGA)” in each gram panchayat. As per the pact, a Gram Rozgar Sahayak or
junior engineer will take a photo of an asset created by beneficiaries of the
scheme and through a mobile app created by ISRO upload the photo on the Bhuvan
web portal run by ISRO’s National Remote Sensing Centre. The geo-tagging of
assets will help to check and curb leakages and also help in using of modern
space technology for rural development in planning and execution of projects in
a transparent manner.
50. Kavalam Narayana Panicker, who passed away recently, was a famous
personality of which field?
(A) Theatre
(B) Sports
(C) Politics
(D) Photography
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Kavalam Narayana
Panicker (88), the famous Malayalam theatre personality, has recently passed
away in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. He was popularly known as Kavalam, was a
well-established poet, lyricist and theatre director. His notable works include
Madhyamavyayogam (1979), Kalidasa’s Vikramorvasiyam (1981), Shakuntalam (1982),
Karnabharam (1984), Bhasa’s Uru Bhangam (1988), Swapnavasavadattam and
Dootavakyam (1996).
51. What is the theme of the United Nations’ (UN) World Refugee Day
2016?
(A) We stand together with refugees
(B) Migrants and Refugees: Towards a Better World
(C) 1 refugee forced to flee is too many
(D) With courage let us all combine
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The United Nations’
(UN) World Refugee Day is observed every year on June 20 to raise awareness of
the situation of refugees throughout the world.The 2016 theme is “We stand
together with refugees”.
52. Who has won the 2016 Formula One European Grand Prix?
(A) Sergio Perez
(B) Sebastian Vettel
(C) Lewis Hamilton
(D) Nico Rosberg
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : Nico Rosberg, a
German Formula One driver for Mercedes Formula 1 team, has won the 2016 Formula
1 European Grand Prix at the Baku City Circuit in Baku, Azerbaijan.
53. Atanu Das is associated with which sports?
(A) Badminton
(B) Archery
(C) Club Throw
(D) Table Tennis
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The Indian mixed
recurve team of Deepika Kumari and Atanu Das has won the silver medal at the
2016 Archery World Cup at Konyaalti Beach Park in Antalya, Turkey.
54. The Government of India (GoI) has recently approved 100% Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) in which of the folowing sectors?
(A) Civil aviation
(B) Defence
(C) Greenfield Pharma
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : The Government of
India (GoI) has recently approved 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in
defence through the approval route, 100% FDI in food product e-commerce, 100%
FDI in greenfield pharma via the automatic route, 100% in brownfield pharma –
of which 74% will be through automatic route, 100% FDI in scheduled airlines
and up to 49% FDI in airlines through automatic route. Beside this, up to 100%
FDI through auomatic route has also been permitted for setting up of uplinking
HUBs/Teleports, Mobile TV, DTH, and cable networks operating at national, state
and district levels, as well as local cable networks.
55. Which state team has won the first edition of India’s Bad Bull
Softball League?
(A) Punjab
(B) Telangana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : Maharashtra have
won the first edition of India’s Bad Bull Softball League by defeating Punjab
2-1 at Saket Sports Complex. The league was recognised by the Delhi Softball
Association (DSA). The Softball league was an effort to encourage amateur
baseball and softball at entry level among the common masses.
56. What is the theme of the 2nd edition the International Day of Yoga
(IDY) 2016?
(A) Live in Peace
(B) Peace: Soul and Mind
(C) Connect the Youth
(D) Inspire every one for healthy environment
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The International
Day of Yoga (IDY) is observed on June 21 every year to spread awareness about
yog(A) Yoga is an invaluable gift of India’s ancient tradition. This tradition
is 5000 years old. It embodies unity of mind and body, thought and action, restraint
and fulfillment, harmony between man and nature and a holistic approach to
health and well-being. The 2nd edition of IDY is celebrated in India and across
the worl(D) In it, 139 countries participated in the celebrations at UN on June
21, 2016. The 2016 theme is “Connect the Youth”.
57. Which Non-Government organization (NGO) has been ranked No. 1 in
the NGO Advisor’s 2016 Top 500 NGOs World rankings?
(A) Save the Children
(B) BRAC
(C) Grameen Bank
(D) Oxfam
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The
Bangladesh-based Non-Government organization (NGO) “BRAC” has been ranked No. 1
in the list of
Geneva-based NGO Advisor’s 2016 Top 500 NGOs World rankings. The BRAC has
acquired top position because of its holistic approach to fight against poverty
and treating it as a system of interrelated barriers that must be addressed
concurrently.The ranking has also highlighted the organization’s history of
designing and implementing solutions at scale. The other notable NGOs in the top
500 include Doctors Without Borders (2), Oxfam (5), Save the Children (9) and
Grameen Bank (12).
58. Which Parliamentary committee has been constituted to review Model
Code of Conduct (MCC) for election polls?
(A) Anand Sinha committee
(B) Nachiket Mor committee
(C) Sudarsana Natchiappan committee
(D) Ashok Dalwai committee
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The Parliamentary committee under the chairmanship of E.M.
Sudarsana Natchiappan has been constituted to review Model code of conduct
(MCC) for election polls and will also suggest ways to check distribution of
cash and freebies ahead of the polls. The MCC are the guidelines issued by the
Election Commission of India (ECI)for conduct of political parties and
candidates during elections mainly with respect to speeches, polling day,
polling booths, election manifestos, processions and general conduct.
59. Which committee has been
constituted by Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
to study the scope of title insurance in the Indian market?
(A) Nachiket Mor committee
(B) Ashok Dalwai committee
(C) Suresh Mathur committee
(D) NR Nagendra committee
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(IRDAI) has set up a Suresh Mathur committee to study the scope of title
insurance in the Indian market. The committee will submit its report within two
months. The title insurance is a cover that protects the owner of a property
from disputes or frauds of land titles.
60. The book “Green Transport”
has been authored by whom?
(A) Ranjit Saranwali
(B) Sanjeev Chhetri
(C) Rani Iyer
(D) Vikrama Hatwara
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The book “Green Transport: : Exploring Eco-Friendly Travel for a
Better Tomorrow” has been authored by Rani Iyer. The author loves to write for children
on a variety of topics viz. nature, ecology, science, culture and history. The
“Green transport” is one of the books of her i.e. inclined towards the
environment.
61. What is the theme of 2016
World Blood Donor Day (WBDD)?
(A) Blood connects us all
(B) More blood, more life (C) Every blood donor
is a hero
(D) Thank you for saving my life
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The World Blood Donor Day (WBDD) is observed every year on June 14
to raise awareness of the need for safe blood and blood products and to thank
blood donors for their voluntary, life- saving gifts of blood. The 2016 theme
is “Blood connects us all”, which aims to motivate more people to donate blood
globally.
62. The United Nations’ World
Elder Abuse Awareness Day (WEAAD) is observed on which date?
(A) June 16
(B) June 11
(C) June 15
(D) June 13
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The United Nations’ World Elder Abuse Awareness Day (WEAAD) is
observed every year on June 15 to focus global attention on the problem of
physical, emotional, and financial abuse of elders and to create awareness on
the need of taking care of elders.
63. Who of the following will represent India at the St Petersburg
International Economic Forum (SPIEF)?
(A) Arun Jaitley
(B) Dharmendra Pradhan
(C) Prakash Javadekar
(D) Narendra Modi
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Dharmendra Pradhan,
the Minister of State (I/C) for Petroleum and Natural Gas, will represent India
at the St Petersburg International Economic Forum (SPIEF) in St Petersburg,
Russia, which is scheduled from June 16-17, 2016. The SPIEF is an annual
international conference dedicated to economic and business issues. It attracts
over thousands of participants, including political and business leaders,
leading scientists, public figures, and members of the media from all over the
world. The forum mainly discusses the most pressing issues facing Russia and
the world.
64. Which committee has been constituted to shortlist candidates for
RBI Governorship?
(A) Anand Kumar committee
(B) HR Khan committee
(C) S S Mundra committee
(D) P K Sinha committee
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : The Union
Government has constituted a selection committee headed by cabinet secretary
P.K. Sinha for shortlisting candidates for RBI governorship, after Raghuram
Rajan’s term comes to an end in September 2016.
65. Who has been elected as the new President of the 71st session of
United Nations General Assembly (UNGA 71)?
(A) Josaia Voreqe Bainimarama
(B) Peter Thomson
(C) John Ashe
(D) Andreas Mavroyiannis
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Thomson Peter
Thomson, Fiji’s ambassador to the United Nations, has been elected as the new
President of the 71st session of United Nations General Assembly (UNGA 71). He
will replace current General Assembly President Mogens Lykketoft and will begin
his tenure in September 2016 at the commencement of the UNGA 71. With this,
Thomson will become the first representative of the Small Islands and
Developing States (SIDS) group to hold the position. Thomson will oversee the
process of searching for a new U.N. secretary-general to replace Ban Ki-moon of
South Korea, who will finish his second five-year term in the post at the end
of 2016.
66. The report titled “The Rise of Environmental Crime” has been
released by which environmental organization?
(A) Partnerships in Environmental Management for
the Seas of East Asia (PEMSEA)
(B) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(C) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN)
(D) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(IPCC)
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The report titled “The Rise of Environmental Crime” has been
released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and INTERPOL. As
per the report, environmental crimes grew up by 26 % larger than previous
estimates. The environmental crime is the world’s 4th largest criminal
enterprise after drug smuggling, counterfeiting and human trafficking. The
environmental crime includes the illegal trade in wildlife, corporate crime in
the forestry sector, the illegal exploitation and sale of gold and other
minerals, illegal fisheries, the trafficking of hazardous waste and carbon
credit fraud. The report has recommended strong action, legislation and
sanctions at national and international levels to stop crime.
67. Who among the following has
won the 2016 Pen Pinter Prize?
(A) Maureen Freely
(B) Margaret Atwood
(C) Zia Haider Rahman
(D) Antonia Fraser
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Margaret Atwood, Canadian poet and environmental campaigner, has
been awarded the prestigious 2016 Pen Pinter Prize for her work championing
environmental causes. She will receive award at a public British Library event
on October 13, 2016. The Prize is awarded annually to British, Irish or
Commonwealth writer to define the real truth of our lives and our societies.
68. Which of the following is
the official slogan for the 2016 Rio Olympic and Paralympic Games?
(A) Welcome home
(B) A New World
(C) Love and save nature
(D) Inspire a generation
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The official slogan for the 2016 Rio Olympic and Paralympic Games
is “A New World”. For Rio 2016, the core values of the slogan and the manifesto
are unity, respect for diversity and the will for change. The motto of Rio 2016
is to promote the concepts of transformation through sport and changing the
world for the better.
69. Which state government has
recently launched the Child Labour Tracking System (CLTS)?
(A) Bihar
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The Bihar government has recently launched the Child Labour
Tracking System (CLTS) in Patna to keep a track of rescued child labour for
their proper rehabilitation. A committee headed by Chief Secretary for
implementation of children’s demands will also be set up. Beside this, every
rescued child will be given Rs. 25000 from Chief Minister’s Relief Fun(D) The
money will directly go to children’s bank account. The money will be given to
all those children who will be registered under the tracking system.
70. Where are the headquarters
of International Seabed Authority (ISA)?
(A) Berlin
(B)
Paris
(C)
New York
(D)
Kingston
(E)
None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental
body to organize, regulate and control all mineral-related activities in the
international seabed area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, an area
underlying most of the world’s oceans. It is in news recently because India
will soon sign a 15 years contract with the ISA, which will give exclusive
rights to India to mine for precious metals in the Indian Ocean seabed. The
ISA, under the United Nations Convention on Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), governs
non-living resources of the seabed of international waters. Presently, the ISA
has 167 members and the European Union, composed of all parties to the Law of
the Sea Convention. The headquarters of ISA is located at Kingston, Jamaica.
71. Which of the following
pollutants is responsible for highest number of premature mortalities in India?
(A) PM2.5
(B)
PM2.10
(C)
Carbon Monoxide
(D) Nitrous oxide
(E)
None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : PM2.5 and ground level Ozone are held responsible for the maximum
number of premature mortalities in Indi(A) PM2.5 causes respiratory irritation
or breathing difficulties or Asthma, and sometimes may prove fatal.
72. Who is the head of the
newly created committee by NITI Aayog for land policy cell?
(A) T. Haque
(B)
T. S. Thakur
(C)
Shah Nawaz Khan
(D)
Anil R. Dave
(E)
None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : T Haque was the chairman of Commission for Agriculture Costs and
Prices, and now has been appointed the head of the newly created land policy
cell in the NITI Aayog. T Haque was among the prime mover behind the Model Land
Leasing Act.
73. Exercise Anakonda 2016
(AN16), the joint military exercise has started in which country?
(A) Poland
(B)
Vietnam
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The 10-day long military training exercise, Anakonda 2016 (AN16)
has started in Poland from June 7, 2016. It is the most important and the
largest training exercise of the Polish Armed Forces in 2016. The purpose of
Anakonda–16 is to check the abilities of NATO to defend the territory of the
eastern flank of North Atlantic Alliance. It involves 31,000 soldiers from 19
NATO countries and five partner countries, including approximately 12,000
Polish troops.
74. Which country has recently
joined Europe-led plan to tackle tax evasion and corruption?
(A) Pakistan
(B) China
(C) India
(D) Switzerland
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The Government of India (GoI) has recently joined a group of
nearly 40 nations that have signed a Europe-led clampdown on tax evasion and
corruption. These 40 countries have committed to the initiative to
automatically exchange information on beneficial ownership. Besides India, some
of the other countries outside Europe on the list include Afghanistan, Nigeria,
Mexico and the UAE. The initiative aims to develop a global standard for the
automatic exchange of beneficial ownership data between law enforcement
agencies and tax authorities of partner countries. Most European countries
except Switzerland are part of this automatic exchange mechanism.
75. Who among the following has
become the first Indian to win the Mumbai Mayor’s International Open Chess
Tournament 2016?
(A) Himal Gusain
(B) Diptayan Ghosh
(C) Swapnil S
Dhopade
(D) NR Visakh
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : NR Visakh, the Tamil Nadu teenager and International Master, has
created history by becoming the first Indian to won the 9th edition of Mumbai
Mayor’s International Open Chess Tournament 2016.
76. Which country is hosting
the 2016 UEFA European football championship?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Turkey
(D) Netherland
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : France is the host nation of the 15th edition of UEFA European
football championship 2016 (Euro 2016). It is scheduled from 10 June to 10 July
2016. For the first time, the European Championship final tournament will be
contested by 24 teams. Under this new format, the finalists will contest a
group stage consisting of six groups of four teams, followed by a knockout
stage including three rounds and the final. The winning team of Euro 2016 earns
the right to compete at the 2017 FIFA Confederations Cup hosted by Russia.
77. The book “The Gene: An Intimate History” has been authored by
whom?
(A) Randall Munroe
(B) Siddhartha Mukherjee
(C) Yuval Noah Harari
(D) Richard P. Feynman
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The book “The Gene:
An Intimate History” has been authored by Siddhartha Mukherjee, who is the
Pulitzer Prize-winning author of the book “The Emperor of All Maladies”. The
book is a magnificent history of the gene and a response to the defining
question of the future: What becomes of being human when we learn to read and
write our own genetic information?. In other words, it is a magnificent
synthesis of the science of life, and forces all to confront the essence of
that science as well as the ethical and philosophical challenges to our
conception of what constitutes being human.
78. Which pay review panel has been constituted for academic staff of
Universities and Colleges?
(A) Satish Ghosh panel
(B) Ashok Dalwai panel
(C) V S Chauhan panel
(D) Neeraj Kumar Gupta panel
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The University
Grants Commission (UGC) has constituted a 5-member committee for pay revision
of academic staff of Universities and Colleges. The Pay Revision Committee will
be chaired by UGC member Prof V S Chauhan and it will submit its report in six
months. The panel will examine the present structure of emoluments and service
conditions of university and college teachers, librarians, physical education
personnel and other academic staff. The panel will also suggest revision in the
pay structure, taking into account the minimum qualifications, career
advancement opportunities and benefits like superannuation benefits, medical
and housing facilities. It will also make recommendations on the ways and means
for attracting and retaining talented persons in the teaching profession among
other things.
79. Who has been bestowed with the Regius Professorship in
Manufacturing by Queen Elizabeth II?
(A) Mahesh Kumar Singla
(B) Kumar Bhattacharyya
(C) Divakar Reddy
(D) H R Nagendra
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Kumar Bhattacharyya
Lord Kumar Bhattacharyya, the well-known Indian-origin professor, has been
bestowed with the prestigious Regius Professorship in Manufacturing by Queen
Elizabeth II for his outstanding contribution in manufacturing. He is the
founder of the Warwick Manufacturing Group (WMG) at the University of Warwick.
Throughout his career, he has advised the UK government on manufacturing,
innovation, and technology, including former Prime Ministers Margaret Thatcher and
Tony Blair.
80. The 2016 Malabar trilateral naval exercise has started between
which of the following countries?
(A) India, Germany and France
(B) India, Iran and Turkey
(C) India, Japan and United States
(D) India, Afghanistan and Russia
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The 2016 Malabar
trilateral naval exercise has started in Japan. The harbor phase of the
exercise would be held at Sasebo from June 10 to June 13 and the sea phase in
the Pacific Ocean from June 14 to June 17. The exercise is in line with India’s
‘Act East’ policy. In it, the naval ships of United States, India and Japan
will participate to advance multi-national maritime relationships and mutual
security issues. The exercise will support maritime security in the
Indo-Pacific region and benefit the global maritime community.
PART – II
English
Comprehension
Directions (Q. 81-85)—In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given.
Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) are
suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of
each sentence. Letter of that word is the answer.
81. I. Boats take more time going against the
________ of the river.
II. She
keeps herself abreast of ________ events.
(A) low
(B) latest
(C) water
(D) all
(E) current
Answer : (E)
82. I. While
trying to open the door, the ________ broke.
II. It is not difficult to ________ tricky
situations.
(A) handle
(B) knob
(C) bracket
(D) overcome
(E) win
Answer : (A)
83. I. This
course teaches you not to ________ to temptations.
II. We hope to increase our ________ of rice
this year.
(A) succumb
(B) produce
(C) yield
(D) share
(E) submit
Answer : (C)
84. I. When you play
your radio at high ________ it disturbs others.
II. We have just received a latest ________
of this encyclopaedia.
(A) edition
(B) volume
(C) channel
(D) frequency
(E) pitch
Answer : (B)
85. I. It helps to
rinse one’s mouth early morning with a________of salt and water.
II. You can always refer to this reference
material to find the ________ to these problems.
(A) mixture
(B) answers
(C) liquid
(D) fix
(E) solution
Answer : (E)
Directions (Q. 86-90)—In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold
type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four
words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the
context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or
inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words
printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the
sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.
86. Solving the energy challange
requires
(A)
behaviour change and new
(B)
technological
approaches. All correct
(C) (D) (E)
Answer : (A)
Explanation : The correct spelling is—challenge
87. The first thing that catches your eye
in
(A)
this
building is the flour with laser
(B) (C)
lights. All correct
(D) (E)
Answer : (C)
Explanation : The correct spelling is — floor
88. The services sector has contributed
(A) (B)
significantly to the economic grow.
(C) (D)
All
correct
(E)
Answer : (D)
Explanation : Replace ‘grow’ by ‘growth’.
89. IT Companies have been
allotted
(A)
landing
in this area to develop
and start
(B)
(C)
their
operations. All correct
(D) (E)
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Replace ‘landing’ by ‘land’.
90. Other then the regular incentives,
the
(A) (B)
government is offering land sites at
(C)
concessional rates.
All correct
(D) (E)
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Replace ‘then’ by ‘than’.
Directions (Q. 91-95)—Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence
grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is
required, mark (E) as the answer.
91. In terms with seating capacity, it is the third
largest stadium in India.
(A) On terms with
(B) As far as
(C) In respective to terms with
(D) In terms of
(E) No correction required
Answer : (D)
92. That actor can double for the star if needed be.
(A) if need
(B) if need be
(C) while it is needed
(D) whenever needed be
(E) No correction required
Answer : (B)
93. The 1982 Asian Games brought about
a major change in India.
(A) brought after
(B) bring after
(C) best resulted
(D) bring around
(E) No correction required
Answer : (E)
94. Tourism surely has suffered given the
huge social unrest in the country.
(A) giving the huge
(B) because to
(C) as the huge
(D) taken the huge
(E) No correction required
Answer : (E)
95. Combining the ongoing crisis in
Europe, the data does make a case for a pause in rate hike.
(A) Together
(B) Apart with
(C) Combined with
(D) Combination of
(E) No correction required
Answer : (C)
Directions (Q.96-105)—Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on
it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, notified by the
Ministry of Environment and Forests, have the potential to turn a growing
problem into a developmental opportunity. With almost half-a-year to go before
the rules take effect, there is enough time to create the necessary
infrastructure for collection, dismantling and recycling of electronic waste. The
focus must be on sincere and efficient implementation. Only decisive action can
reduce the pollution and health costs associated with India’s hazardous waste
recycling industry. If India can achieve a transformation, it will be creating
a whole new employment sector that provides good wages and working conditions
for tens of thousands. The legacy response of the States to even the basic law
on urban waste, the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules has
been one of indifference; many cities continue to simply burn the garbage or
dump it in lakes. With the emphasis now on segregation of waste at source and
recovery of materials, it should be feasible to implement both sets of rules
efficiently. A welcome feature of the new e-waste rules is the emphasis on
extended producer responsibility. In other words, producers must take
responsibility for the disposal of end-of-life products. For this provision to
work, they must ensure that consumers who sell scrap get some form of financial
incentive.
The e-waste rules, which derive from those pertaining to hazardous
waste, are scheduled to come into force on May 1, 2012. Sound as they are, the
task of scientifically disposing a few hundred thousand tonnes of trash
electronics annually depends heavily on a system of oversight by State
Pollutions Control Boards (PCBs). Unfortunately, most PCBs remain unaccountable
and often lack the resources for active enforcement. It must be pointed out
that, although agencies handling e-waste must obtain environmental clearances
and be authorised and registered by the PCBs even under the Hazardous Wastes
(Management, Handling and Transboundary
Movement) Rules 2008, there has been little practical impact. Over 95 per cent
of electronic waste is collected and recycled by the informal sector. The way
forward is for the PCBs to be made accountable for enforcement of the e-waste
rules and the levy of penalties under environmental laws. Clearly, the first
order priority is to create a system that will absorb the 80,000-strong workforce
in the informal sector into the proposed scheme for scientific recycling.
Facilities must be created to upgrade the skills of these workers through
training and their occupational health must be ensured.
Recycling of e-waste is one of the biggest challenges today. In
such a time, when globalisation and information technology are growing at a
pace which could only be imagined few years back, e-waste and its hazards have
become more prominent over a period of time and should be given immediate attention.
96. What, according to the passage, is
important now for e-waste management ?
(A) Making rules
(B) Reviewing rules
(C) Implementing rules
(D) Notifying rules
(E) Amending rules
Answer : (C)
97. Which of the following can be one of the
by-products of effective e-waste management ?
(A) India can guide other countries in doing so
(B) It will promote international understanding
(C) It will promote national integration
(D) It will create a new employment sector
(E) It will further empower judiciary
Answer : (D)
98. Which of the
following rules has not been indicated in the passage ?
(A) e-waste Rules
2011
(B) Pollution Check
Rules
(C) Hazardous Wastes
Rules, 2008
(D) Municipal Solid
Wastes Rules
(E) All these have
been indicated
Answer : (B)
99. “Both sets of
rules” is being referred to which of the following ?
(A) Solid wastes and
hazardous wastes
(B) e-waste and
hazardous waste
(C) Solid waste and
e-waste
(D) e-waste and
e-production
(E) Solid waste and
recycling waste
Answer : (E)
100. e-waste rules have
been derived from those pertaining to–
(A) Hazardous waste
(B) PC waste
(C) Computer waste
(D) Municipal solid
waste
(E) National waste
Answer : (A)
101. Which of the
following will help implement “both sets of rules”?
(A) Employment
opportunities
(B) International
collaboration
(C) Financial
incentive
(D) Segregation of
waste at source
(E) Health costs
Answer : (D)
102. e-waste Rules came / come into force from–
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011
(E) 2012
Answer : (E)
103. Which of the
following best explains the meaning of the phrase “which could only be imagined
few years back” as used in the passage ?
(A) It was doomed.
(B) It took us few
years.
(C) It took us back
by few years.
(D) Imagination is
better than IT.
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)
104. Which of the following is true in the
context of the passage ?
(A) No city dumps its waste in lakes
(B) Some cities burn garbage
(C) PCBs have adequate resources for active
enforcement
(D) e-waste was a much bigger challenge in the
past
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
105. Which of the following is not true in
the context of the passage ?
(A) Some form of financial incentive is recommended
for the producers
(B) Some financial incentive is recommended for
the consumers
(C) e-waste will be a few hundred thousand tonnes
(D) The agencies handling e-waste have to obtain
environmental clearances
(E) Those involved in e-waste management would
need to upgrade their skills
Answer : (A)
Directions
(Q. 106-108)—Choose the word which is
most nearly the same in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the
passage.
106. Clearance
(A) Cleaning
(B) Permission
(C) Sale
(D) Remedy
(E) Clarity
Answer : (B)
107. Turn
(A) Throw
(B) Chance
(C) Send
(D) Transform
(E) Rotate
Answer : (D)
108. Potential
(A) Intelligence
(B) Aptitude
(C) Possibility
(D) Portion
(E) Will
Answer : (B)
Directions
(Q. 109-110)—Choose the word which is
most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
109. Feasible
(A) Unattended
(B) Physical
(C) Practical
(D) Unviable
(E) Wasteful
Answer : (D)
110. Indifference
(A) Interest
(B) Difference
(C) Ignorance
(D) Rule-bound
(E) Insignificance
Answer : (A)
PART – III
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 111–120)—What should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following questions ?
111. 3·8
× 5·6 × 11·5 – 31·653 = ?
(A) 234·880
(B) 265·404
(C) 213·067
(D) 256·072
(E) None
of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : ? = 3·8 × 5·6 × 11·5 – 31·653
= 244·72 – 31·653
= 213·067
(A) 415
(B) 384
(C) 492
(D) 346
(E) None
of these
Answer : (E)
Explanation : ? = 
of
of 
of 1218
=
= 464
113. 93% of 456 = ?
(A) 435·06
(B) 419·02
(C) 443·04
(D) 424·08
(E) None
of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : ? = 
of 456
= 424·08
114. 8·2 × ? = 465·76
(A) 56·8
(B) 48·6
(C) 62·4
(D) 74·2
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : 8·2 × ? = 465·76
\ ? = 
=
56·8
115. 1485 ÷ (44 × 0·75) = ?
(A) 33
(B) 56
(C) 45
(D) 67
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : ? =
1485 ÷ (44 × 0·75)
= 
= 45
116. 128
÷ 8 ÷ 0·4 = ?
(A) 36
(B) 42
(C) 48
(D) 54
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)
Explanation : ? =
128 ÷ 8 ÷ 0·4
= 
=
40
117. 56064 ÷ 
= 48 × 16
(A) 768
(B) 1168
(C) 73
(D) 5329
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : Q 
= 48 × 16
Þ = 
=
73
\ ? =
(73)2
=
5329
118. 63%
of 781 + ? = 666
(A) 164·85
(B) 173·97
(C) 181·63
(D) 195·79
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Q 
of 781 + ? =
666
Þ 
= 666
\ ? =
666 – 492·03
=
173·97
119. 1587
+ 2277 = ? × 69
(A) 49
(B) 64
(C) 73
(D) 56
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : ? × 69 = 1587 + 2277
\ ? = 
= 56
120. 
(A) 23
(B) 529
(C) 729
(D) 27
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : +
24 = 
Þ = 47 – 24
=
23
\ ? = (23)2
=
529
121. The
difference between 63% of a number and 45% of the same number is 342. What is
78% of that number ?
(A) 1342
(B) 1482
(C) 1558
(D) 1670
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Let the number be x
Q 
= 342
Þ x = 
\ 
= 
=
1482
122. What would be the compound interest obtained on
an amount of Rs. 4,000 at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. after 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 612
(B) Rs. 578
(C) Rs. 525·5
(D) Rs. 630·5
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : C.I. = 
=
=
Rs. 630·50
123. A car covers a distance of 1450 kms. in 25
hours. What is the speed of the car ?
(A) 58 kms./hr.
(B) 66 kms./hr.
(C) 72 kms./hr.
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Speed of the car = 
=
58 km/hr.
124. The average age of a man and his son is 40
years. The ratio of their ages is 7 : 3 respectively. What is the man’s age ?
(A) 70 years
(B) 63 years
(C) 56 years
(D) 49 years
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Let the age of the man and his son be 7x years and 3x years
respectively
Q 
= 40
Þ x = 
=
8
\ Age
of the man = 7 × 8
=
56 years
125. A
canteen requires 28 dozen bananas for a week. How many dozen bananas will it
require for 47 days ?
(A) 2256
(B) 322
(C) 196
(D) 2352
(E) None
of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Reqd. number of bananas
= 
= 2256
126. The
product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
(A) 83
(B) 79
(C) 81
(D) 77
(E) None
of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : Let the number be x and (x + 2)
Q x (x + 2) = 6399
Þ x2 + 2x – 6399 = 0
Þ (x + 81) (x – 79) = 0
\ x = 79
127. The
average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the
product of B & D ?
(A) 11440
(B) 11024
(C) 10608
(D) 11232
(E) None
of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : Let A = x
B =
x + 2
C =
x + 4
D =
x + 6
and E = x +
8
Q 
= 106
Þ 5x + 20 = 106 × 5
Þ x = 
=
102
\ B × D = 104 × 108
=
11232
128. The owner of a cell phone shop charges his
customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 7,011 for a cell
phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone ?
(A) Rs. 5,845
(B) Rs. 6,750
(C) Rs. 5,900
(D) Rs. 6,925
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)
Explanation : C. P. of the cell phone
=
=
Rs. 5700
129. If
(16)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the
answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number ?
(A) 69
(B) 59
(C) 89
(D) 79
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Let the number be x
Q x2 – (16)3 =
3825
Þ x2 =
3825 + 4096
=
7921
\ x = 89
130. If an amount of Rs. 85,602 is distributed
equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each person get ?
(A) Rs. 2,594
(B) Rs. 2,954
(C) Rs. 2,549
(D) Rs. 2,495
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Reqd. amount
=
=
Rs. 2594
131. 43%
of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number ?
(A) 416
(B) 429
(C) 403
(D) 384
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Let the number be x
Q 
= 559
Þ x = 
\ x × 
= 
= 416
132. If the fractions 
and 
are arranged in
descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
(A)
(B) 
(C)
(D) 
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : = 0·2
= 0·28
= 0·6
= 0·83
= 0·846
\ Fourth in order, when arranged in
descending order is =
133. If
(92)2 is added to the square of a number, the answer
so obtained is 10768. What is the number ?
(A) 46
(B) 2304
(C) 48
(D) 2116
(E) None
of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Let the number be x
Q x2 + (92)2 = 10768
Þ x2 = 10768 – 8464
= 2304
\ x = 
=
48
134. The total number of students in a school is
5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, then what is the respective
ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school ?
(A) 49
: 52
(B) 51
: 50
(C) 50
: 51
(D) 52
: 49
(E) None
of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Q No. of boys = 5050 – 2450
= 2600
\ Reqd. ratio = 2450 : 2600
= 49 : 52
135. Sumit invests Rs. 4,762, which is 25% of his
monthly income, in insurance policies. What is his monthly income ?
(A) Rs.
28,572
(B) Rs.
23,810
(C) Rs.
19,048
(D) Rs.
14,285
(E) None
of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Sumit’s monthly income
= 4762 × 
= Rs. 19048
136. Ms. Vishakha deposits an amount of Rs. 35,800
to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 15 p.c.p.a. for 4 years. What total
amount will Ms. Vishakha get at the end of 4 years ?
(A) Rs.
45,680
(B) Rs.
39,880
(C) Rs.
21,480
(D) Rs.
57,280
(E) None
of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : Reqd. amount = 35800 + 
=
Rs. 57280
137. There
are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to
different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred ?
(A) 603
(B) 402
(C) 804
(D) 703
(E) None
of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Reqd.
number = 
= 603
138. In an examination Shalini scores a total of 436
marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination
?
(A) 83
(B) 65
(C) 82
(D) 78
(E) 70
Answer : (E)
Explanation : Reqd. % = 
=
69·76%
; 70%
139. What would be the simple interest obtained on
an amount of Rs. 8,930 at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. after 5 years ?
(A) Rs.
5,413
(B) Rs.
2,678
(C) Rs.
3,572
(D) Rs.
4,752
(E) None
of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : S. I. = 
=
Rs. 3572
140. The cost of 12 Chairs and 15 Tables is Rs.
58,968. What is the cost of 4 Chairs and 5 Tables ?
(A) Rs.
19,656
(B) Rs.
29,484
(C) Rs.
39,312
(D) Cannot
be determined
(E) None
of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : Reqd. cost = 
= Rs.
19656
PART – IV
Reasoning
Ability
141. In a certain code language
‘TERMINAL’ is written as ‘NSFUMBOJ’ and ‘TOWERS’ is written as ‘XPUTSF’. How is
‘MATE’ written in that code ?
(A) FUBN
(B) UFNB
(C) BNFU
(D) BNDS
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation :
and
Similarly,
So,
142. The
positions of how many digits in the number 5314687 will remain unchanged after
the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More
than three
Answer : (C)
Explanation :
So, position of two digits, i.e. 3 and
6, remains unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within
the number.
143. What should come in place of question mark
(?) in the following series ?
AC
EG IK MO
?
(A) PR
(B) QS
(C) OR
(D) PS
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation :
So, Q S should come in the place of question mark.
144. ‘ERID’ is related to ‘DIRE’ in the same
way as ‘RIPE’ is related to–
(A) EPIR
(B) PERI
(C) EPRI
(D) PEIR
(E) IPRE
Answer : (A)
Explanation : ERID ® DIRE.
Alphabets are written in reverse order.
Thus, RIPE ® EPIR
145. How many
meaningful English words can be made with the third, fifth, seventh and ninth
letters of the word DOWNGRADED, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer : (B)
Explanation : The third, fifth, seventh and ninth letters are W, G, A and E
respectively.
Only
one meaningful word can be formed using these letters which is WAGE.
Directions
(Q. 146-150)—In each question below, a group
of digits/symbols is given followed by four combinations of letters (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations (A), (B), (C) and
(D) correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following
coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the of that combination
as your answer. If none of the four correctly represents the group of
digits/symbols, mark (E), i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
5 9 @ ©
3 8 1
$ % 4 2
6 H
7 d #
Letter code :
B E P
A K D F H
Q I R
J U M
V T
Conditions :
(i) If the first unit in
the group is an even digit and the last unit is a symbol, both these are to be
coded as the code for the symbol.
(ii) If
the first unit in the group is an odd digit and the last unit is an even digit,
their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If both the first and the last units in
the group are symbols both these are to be coded as ‘X’.
146. @91$26
(A) JEFHRP
(B) PEFHRP
(C) XEFHRX
(D) PEFHRJ
(E) None
of these
Answer : (D)
Explanation : @ 9 1 $ 2 6
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
P E F H R J
147. 387#©9
(A) KMDTAE
(B) KDMATE
(C) EDMTAK
(D) KDMTAK
(E) None
of these
Answer : (E)
Explanation : 3 8 7 # © 9
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
K D M T P E
148. 4@312d
(A) VPKFRV
(B) VPKFRI
(C) XPKFRX
(D) IPKFRV
(E) None
of these
Answer : (A)
Explanation : 4 @ 3 1 2 d
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
V P K F R V
(Condition
(i) applies.)
149. %4187H
(A) QIFDMU
(B) UIFDMQ
(C) XIFDMX
(D) UIFDMU
(E) None
of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation : % 4 1 8 7 H
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
X I F D M X
(Condition (iii) applies.)
150. 9124d6
(A) EFRIVJ
(B) JFRIVE
(C) EFRIVE
(D) XFRIVX
(E) None
of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : 9 1 2 4 d 6
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
J F R I V E
(Condition
(ii) applies.)
Directions
(Q. 151-155)—In the following
questions, the symbols d, %, H,
$ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
‘P%Q’ means ‘P
is not smaller than Q’.
‘PHQ’ means ‘P
is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘PdQ’ means ‘P
is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P$Q’ means ‘P
is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P©Q’ means ‘P
is not greater than Q’.
Now,
in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely
true. Give answer
(A) if
only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
151. Statements : D $ T, T % M, M H J
Conclusions :
I. J d D
II. M ©
D
Answer : (B)
Explanation : D = T....(i); T > M....(ii); M < J....(iii)
Combining all the three, we have, D = T > M < J Þ
No relationship between D and J can be established. Hence conclusion I is not
true. Again, combining (i) and (ii), we get, D = T > M Þ D
> M Þ M < D. Therefore, conclusion II is not true.
152. Statements : B H K, K $ N, N % R
Conclusions :
I. R $ K
II. R H
K
Answer : (C)
Explanation : B < K....(i); K = N....(ii) N > R....(iii)
Combining (ii) and (iii), we get K = N >
R Þ R > K. Therefore neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
But both are
exhaustive. Hence either conclusion I (R = K) or conclusion II (R < K) is
true.
153. Statements : H % F, F H W, W $ E
Conclusions
:
I. E d F
II. H d W
Answer : (A)
Explanation : H > F....(i); F < W....(ii); W = E....(iii)
Combining (ii) and (iii), we get F <
W = E Þ F < E Þ E > F. Hence conclusion I is
true. Again, combining (i) and (ii), we have, H > F < W Þ No relationship between H and W
can be determined. Therefore conclusion II is not true.
154. Statements : Z d D,
D © K, K d M
Conclusions :
I. M H D
II. Z d K
Answer : (D)
Explanation : Z > D....(i); D < K....(ii); K > M....(iii)
Combining (ii) and (iii), we have D <
K > M Þ No relationship between D and M
can be determined. Hence conclusion I does not follow. Again, combining (i) and
(ii), we get, Z > D < K Þ No relationship between Z
and K can be determined. Therefore conclusion II is not true.
155. Statements : W © B, N d B, N © F
Conclusions :
I. F d B
II. W H N
Answer : (E)
Explanation : W < B....(i); N > B;....(ii); N <
F....(iii)
Combining (ii) and (iii), we have B <
N < F Þ B < F Þ F > B. Therefore conclusion I
is true. Again, combining (i) and (ii), we get, W < B < N Þ W <
N. Hence conclusion II
Directions (Q. 156-160)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below :
P, T, V, R, M, D, K and W are sitting around a circular table
facing the centre. V is second to the left of T. T is fourth to the right of M.
D and P are not immediate neighbours of T. D is third to the right of P. W is
not an immediate neighbour of P. P is to the immediate left of K.
156. Who is second to the left of K ?
(A) P
(B) R
(C) M
(D) W
(E) Data inadequate
Answer : (B)
For (156-160) :
157. Who is on the immediate left of V ?
(A) D
(B) M
(C) W
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
158. Who is third to the right of V ?
(A) T
(B) K
(C) P
(D) M
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)
159. What is R’s position with respect to V ?
(A) Third to the right
(B) Fifth to the right
(C) Third to the left
(D) Second to the left
(E) Fourth to the left
Answer : (A)
160. Four of the following five
are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above seating
arrangement and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that
group ?
(A) DW
(B) TP
(C) VM
(D) RD
(E) KR
Answer : (D)
161. In
a certain code DROWN is written as MXNSC. How is BREAK written in that code ?
(A) LBFSC
(B) JBDSA
(C) JZDQA
(D) LZFQC
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation :
162. Among
M, N, T, R and D each having a different height, T is taller than D but shorter
than M. R is taller than N but shorter than D. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) D
(B) T
(C) M
(D) R
(E) N
Answer : (C)
Explanation : M > T > D > R > N
163. How many such digits are there in the number
5436182 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when
the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More
than three
Answer : (B)
Explanation : 5 4 3 6 1 8 2
1 2 3 4 5 6 8
164. What should come next in the letter series
given below ?
D D E D E F D E F G D E F G H D E F G H
I D E F G H I J D
(A) D
(B) E
(C) F
(D) J
(E) None
of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : D, DE, DEF, DEFG, DEFGH, DEFGHI, DEFGHIJ, DE
165. The letters in the word MORTIFY are changed in
such a way that the vowels are replaced by the previous letter in the English
alphabet and the consonants are replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet.
Which of the following will be the fourth letter from the right end of the new
set of letters ?
(A) S
(B) H
(C) G
(D) N
(E) None
of these
Answer : (E)
Explanation : M O R T I F Y ® N N S
U H G Z.
4th letter from the right in the newset is U.
166. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(A) Leaf
(B) Flower
(C) Petal
(D) Fruit
(E) Tree
Answer : (E)
Explanation : All the rest are parts of ‘Tree’.
167. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(A) Garlic
(B) Ginger
(C) Carrot
(D) Radish
(E) Brinjal
Answer : (E)
Explanation : All the rest grow inside the ground.
168. How many meaningful English words can be made
with the letters ALPE using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More
than three
Answer : (E)
Explanation : L E A P, P E A L, P L E A and P A L E
169. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 32
(D) 72
(E) 64
Answer : (E)
Explanation : Only 64 is a perfect square number.
170. How
many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHAMBERS each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More
than three
Answer : (C)
Explanation :
A – C and R – S
Directions (Q.
171-175)—In each of the questions below are given three statements followed
by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all
the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer—
(A) If only Conclusion I follows.
(B) If only Conclusion II follows.
(C) If either Conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both Conclusions I and II follow.
171. Statements : Some
toys are desks. Some desks are pens. All pens are rods.
Conclusions :
I. Some
rods are toys.
II. Some pens are toys.
Answer : (D)
Explanation :
172. Statements : Some
tables are huts. No hut is ring. All rings are bangles.
Conclusions :
I. Some
bangles are tables.
II. No bangle is table.
Answer : (C)
Explanation :
173. Statements : All stars are clouds. All clouds are rains.
All rains are stones.
Conclusions :
I. All
rains are stars.
II. All clouds are stones.
Answer : (B)
Explanation :
174. Statements : All windows are doors. Some doors are
buildings. All buildings are cages.
Conclusions : I. Some cages are doors.
II. Some
buildings are windows.
Answer : (A)
Explanation :
175. Statements : Some
chairs are rooms. All rooms are trees. All trees are poles.
Conclusions : I. Some poles are chairs.
II. Some
trees are chairs.
Answer : (E)
Explanation :
Directions
(Q. 176-180)—Study the following arrangement carefully and asnwer the
questions given below :
G M 5 I D # J K E 2 P T 4 W % A F 3 U 8 $ N V 6
Q @ 7 H 1 © B 9 « Z
176. Four
of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in
the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(A) D J I
(B) F U A
(C) H @ 1
(D) B « ©
(E) I # 5
Answer : (C)
Explanation :
177. What
should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on
the above arrangement ?
D J K 2 T 4
% F 3 ?
(A) U $ V
(B) U $ N
(C) 8 N V
(D) 8 N I
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Explanation :
178. How
many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer : (B)
Explanation : U 8 $
179. How
many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer : (D)
Explanation : 4 W % 6 Q @ 7 H I
180. Which
of the following is the fourth to the right of the twelfth from the right end
of the above arrangement ?
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) K
(D) A
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
Explanation : 4th element from the right is ‘V’
and 4th to the right of ‘V’ is ‘7’.
Directions
(Q. 181-185)—Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing at
the center. F is third to the right of B who is third to the right of H. A is
third to the left of H. C is fourth to the left of A. E is third to the right
of D who is not a neighbour of A.
181. In which of the following pairs the second
person is to the immediate right of the first person ?
(A) HC
(B) BE
(C) GB
(D) FA
(E) None of these
Answer : (A)
For Solution from
Questions 181-185 :
182. Who
is second to the right of D ?
(A) F
(B) G
(C) A
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)
Explanation : Second to the right of D is C.
183. Who
is third to the left of G ?
(A) H
(B) D
(C) C
(D) F
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
184. Who
is fourth to the left of C ?
(A) F
(B) A
(C) E
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
185. What
is B’s position with respect to D ?
(1) Fourth to the right
(2) Fourth to the left
(3) Fifth to the left
(4) Fifth to the right
(A) (1) only
(B) (2) only
(C) (1) and (2) only
(D) (3) and (4) only
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
Directions (Q.
186-190)—In each question below is given a group of letters followed by
four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to
find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters
based on the following coding system and mark the number of that combination as
the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of
letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Letter : P M A K T I J E R N D F U W B
Digit / : 7 # 8 % 1 9 2 @ 3 © $ 4 « 5 6
Symbol
Conditions :
(i) If both the first and the last letters of the
group are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last
letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.
186. BDATFE
(A) 6$8146
(B) 6$814@
(C) @$814@
(D) @$8146
(E) None of these
Answer : (D)
187. AWBRND
(A) $563©8
(B) 8563©$
(C) 8365©$
(D) 8536©$
(E) None of these
Answer : (B)
188. EMNTKU
(A) «#©1%@
(B) @#©14«
(C) @#©1%«
(D) #@©1%«
(E) None of these
Answer : (C)
189. MDEAJI
(A) 1$@82#
(B) #$@821
(C) 1$@821
(D) #$@82#
(E) None of these
Answer : (E)
190. RKUMFP
(A) 7%«#43
(B) 3«%#47
(C) 3%«#43
(D) 3%«#47
(E) None
of these
Answer : (E)
Directions (Q.
191-195)—In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, % and « are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P « Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor
smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal
to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal
to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements
to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are
definitely true ?
Give answer—
(A) If only Conclusion I is true.
(B) If only Conclusion II is true.
(C) If either Conclusion I or II is true.
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) If both Conclusions I and II are true.
191. Statements : R $ M, M © F, F % J
Conclusions :
I. R $ J
II. F © R
Answer : (D)
Explanation : R $ M ® R > M
M © F ® M < F
and F % J ® F ³ J
\ R > M < F ³ J
I. R $ J ® R > J (False)
II. F © R ® F < R (False)
192. Statements : M
© D, D @ K, K & N
Conclusions :
I. N $ D
II. K $ M
Answer : (B)
Explanation : M © D ® M < D
D @ K ® D £
K
and K « N ® K = N
\ M
< D £ K
= N
I. N $ D ® N > D (False)
II. K $ M ® K > M (True)
193. Statements : B
@ D, D $ M, M & N
Conclusions :
I. N @ D
II. D $ N
Answer : (B)
Explanation : B @ D ® B £ D
D $ M ® D > M
and M « N ® M = N
\ B £ D > M = N
I. N @ D ® N £ D (False)
II. D $ N ® D > N (True)
194. Statements : F
$ W, W % J, J @ N
Conclusions :
I. J @ F
II. N % W
Answer : (D)
Explanation : F $ W ® F > W
W % J ® W £ J
and
J @ N ® J £ N
\ F > W ³ J < N
I. J @ F ® J £ F (False)
II. N % W ® N ³ W (False)
195. Statements : F © T, T % R, R $ W
Conclusions :
I. W
© T
II. R © T
Answer : (A)
Explanation : F © T ® F < T,
T % R ® T ³ R
and R $ W ® R > W
\ F < T ³ R > W
I. W
© T ® W < T (True)
II. R
© T ® R < T (False)
Directions (Q. 196-200)—Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read
both the statements and give answer
(A) if
the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) if
the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) if
the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
(D) if the data given
in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
(E) if the data in
both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
196. Towards which direction is Village M from
Village T ?
I. Village P is to
the south of Village M and Village P is to the west of Village T.
II. Village K is to
the east of Village M and Village K is to the north of Village T.
Answer : (C)
Explanation : From I.
M
P T
Thus, it can be found that M is to the north-west of T. So, I
alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From
II. M K
T
Thus, it can be deduced that M is to the north-west
of T. So, II alone is also sufficient to answer the question. Thus, the answer
can be found by using either of the statements alone.
197. On which day in July was
definitely Mohan’s mother’s birthday ?
I. Mohan correctly
remembers that his mother’s birthday is before eighteenth but after twelfth
July.
II. Mohan’s sister
correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after fifteenth but before
nineteenth July.
Answer : (D)
Explanation : From I. Possible dates of birthday of Mohan’s mother are 13th, 14th, 15th,
16th or 17th of July
Thus, I alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
From II. Possible dates of birthday of Mohan’s mother are 16th, 17th or
18th of July.
Thus, II alone is also not sufficient to
answer the question. Now, even after combining I and II, it is found that
Mohan’s mother’s birthday is either on 16th or 17th July.
Thus, the answer cannot be found even after combining
both the statements. Hence, option (D) follows.
198. How is D related to M ?
I. K and D are the
only sisters of R.
II. M is married to
R’s father.
Answer : (E)
Explanation : From I. It is clear that K, D and R are siblings while K and D are
females. But no relation can be found between D and M.
From II. It can be found that R’s father is certainly the father of K and D
as well. Since M is married to R’s father, it means M is the mother of R.
Thus, after combining I and II, we can definitely say that M
is the mother of D. So, both statements I and II are required to answer.
199. How is ‘near’ written in a code language ?
I. ‘go near the
tree’ is written as ‘sa na pa ta’ in that code language.
II. ‘tree is near
home’ is written as ‘ja pa da sa’ in that code language.
Answer : (D)
Explanation : From I. go near the tree ® sa na pa ta Thus, code for ‘near’ cannot be
found.
From II. tree is near home ® ja pa da sa Again, code for ‘near’ cannot be
found.
After combining I and II, it is found that the
code for ‘near’ can be either ‘sa’ or ‘pa’.
Thus, the answer cannot be found even
after combining both the statements.
200. Among A, B, C, D
and E, each having scored different marks in an exam, who has scored the lowest
marks ?
I. D has scored
more marks than only three of them.
II. A has scored
more marks than only E.
Answer : (B)
Explanation : From I. – > D > – – – is obtained if all of them are arranged in
descending order of the marks scored.
But we cannot say who among them scored the
lowest marks.
From
II. It is clear that E has scored the lowest marks. Thus, II alone is
sufficient to answer to the question.
